Nokea
A client with cervical cancer has a radioactive implant. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching regarding radioactive implants?
- A. I won't be able to have visitors while getting radiation therapy.
- B. I will have a urinary catheter while the implant is in place.
- C. I can be up to the bedside commode while the implant is in place.
- D. I won't have any side effects from this type of therapy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients with radioactive implants can use the bedside commode if permitted, indicating understanding of mobility restrictions. Visitor limitations, catheters, and side effects depend on the specific protocol.
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The client is admitted with a diagnosis of postpartum depression. Which medication is most likely to be ordered?
- A. Antibiotics
- B. Antidepressants
- C. Magnesium sulfate
- D. Tocolytics
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Postpartum depression is treated with antidepressants (e.g. SSRIs) to address mood symptoms. Antibiotics magnesium sulfate and tocolytics are used for other conditions not depression.
A female client is started on warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg po bid. To adequately evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy, the nurse must know that this medication:
- A. Dissolves any clots already formed in the arteries
- B. Prevents the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
- C. Interferes with the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
- D. Stimulates the manufacturing of platelets
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thrombolytic agents (e.g., streptokinase) directly activate plasminogen, dissolving fibrin deposits, which in turn dissolves clots that have already formed. Heparin prevents the formation of clots by potentiating the effects of antithrombin III and the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Warfarin prevents the formation of clots by interfering with the hepatic synthesis of the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Platelets initiate the coagulation of blood by adhering to each other and the site of injury to form platelet plugs.
A 28-year-old client comes to the clinic for her first prenatal examination. In relating her obstetrical history, she tells the nurse that she has been pregnant twice before. She had a 'miscarriage' with the first pregnancy after 6 weeks. With the second pregnancy, she delivered twin girls at 31 weeks' gestation. One of the twins was stillborn and the other twin died at 4 days of age. Using a five-digit system, the nurse records her as being:
- A. 2-0-2-1-0
- B. 2-2-2-1-2
- C. 3-0-1-1-0
- D. 2-1-1-0-0
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first digit represents the total number of pregnancies. This client has been pregnant 3 times including this pregnancy. The twin pregnancy counts as only one pregnancy, and because she delivered prior to 37 weeks' gestation, the third digit is recorded as 1. The first digit represents the total number of pregnancies. This client has been pregnant 3 times including this pregnancy. The second digit represents the total number of full-term deliveries; she has lost two pregnancies before 37 weeks' gestation. At present, she has no living children, so the fifth digit is noted as 0. The client is pregnant for the third time, and the first digit reflects the total number of pregnancies. She has had no full-term deliveries, because she delivered prior to 37 gestational weeks, so the second digit is recorded as 0. The third digit represents the number of preterm deliveries, and a twin pregnancy counts as only one delivery. She lost an earlier pregnancy prior to 20 gestational weeks, and the fourth digit reflects spontaneous or elective abortions. Lastly, the fifth digit indicates the number of children currently living, and she has no living children. She is pregnant for the third time, and the first digit reflects the total number of pregnancies. In the previous two pregnancies, she delivered prior to 37 gestational weeks, thus having no full-term deliveries, which is indicated by the second digit. The fourth digit represents the total number of abortions, spontaneous or elective, and she reported a spontaneous abortion with her first pregnancy.
The physician has ordered DDAVP (desmopressin acetate) for a client with diabetes insipidus. Which finding indicates that the medication is having its intended effect?
- A. The client's appetite has improved.
- B. The client's morning blood sugar was 120 mg/dL.
- C. The client's urinary output has decreased.
- D. The client's activity level has increased.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: DDAVP reduces excessive urination in diabetes insipidus by mimicking antidiuretic hormone, decreasing urinary output. Appetite, blood sugar, and activity are not directly affected.
A 38-year-old pregnant woman visits her nurse practitioner for her regular prenatal checkup. She is 30 weeks' gestation. The nurse should be alert to which condition related to her age?
- A. Iron-deficiency anemia
- B. Sexually transmitted disease (STD)
- C. Intrauterine growth retardation
- D. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Iron-deficiency anemia can occur throughout pregnancy and is not age related. STDs can occur prior to or during pregnancy and are not age related. Intrauterine growth retardation is an abnormal process where fetal development and maturation are delayed. It is not age related. Physical risks for the pregnant client older than 35 include increased risk for PIH, cesarean delivery, fetal and neonatal mortality, and trisomy.