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A client with chronic kidney disease has been prescribed a low-protein diet. Which food should the healthcare provider advise the client to limit?
- A. Chicken breast
- B. Apple
- C. Rice
- D. Banana
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chicken breast. In chronic kidney disease, a low-protein diet is often recommended to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Chicken breast is a high-protein food that should be limited in such diets to help manage the progression of kidney disease. Choices B, C, and D are low in protein and are generally suitable for individuals following a low-protein diet. Apples, rice, and bananas can be included in moderation as part of a balanced diet for individuals with chronic kidney disease.
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A nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and census overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse's priority?
- A. Temperature
- B. Heart rate
- C. Abdominal tenderness
- D. Census overdue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature. A high fever is a significant indicator of infection or other serious conditions, making it the priority finding. Elevated temperature indicates an immediate concern for infection, which can quickly escalate and lead to severe complications if not addressed promptly. While heart rate, abdominal tenderness, and census overdue are important aspects to consider in the client's care, addressing the fever takes precedence due to its potential severity and implications for the client's health.
The patient is immobilized after undergoing hip replacement surgery. Which finding will alert the nurse to monitor for hemorrhage in this patient?
- A. Thick, tenacious pulmonary secretions
- B. Low-molecular-weight heparin doses
- C. SCDs wrapped around the legs
- D. Elastic stockings (TED hose)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, which is low-molecular-weight heparin doses. After hip replacement surgery, patients are at risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility. Heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin are commonly used for prophylaxis against DVT. Monitoring for hemorrhage is crucial when administering anticoagulants. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to monitoring for hemorrhage in this scenario. Thick, tenacious pulmonary secretions (Choice A) may indicate respiratory issues, SCDs (Choice C) help prevent DVT but do not directly relate to hemorrhage monitoring, and elastic stockings (TED hose) (Choice D) are used for DVT prophylaxis but do not alert to hemorrhage.
A provider prescribes cold application for a client who reports ankle joint stiffness. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the application of cold?
- A. Capillary refill of 4 seconds
- B. 7.5 cm (3 in) diameter bruise on the ankle
- C. Warts on the affected ankle
- D. 2+ pitting edema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Capillary refill of 4 seconds indicates poor circulation, which is a contraindication to cold application as it could worsen the condition by further reducing blood flow. Choice B, a 7.5 cm (3 in) diameter bruise on the ankle, does not directly contraindicate cold application but may need evaluation for possible underlying injuries. Choice C, warts on the affected ankle, do not necessarily contraindicate cold application. Choice D, 2+ pitting edema, is not a direct contraindication to cold application but may need to be addressed separately.
When should discharge planning be initiated for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure?
- A. During the admission process.
- B. After the client stabilizes.
- C. Only after the client requests it.
- D. At the time of discharge.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Discharge planning should begin during the admission process for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Initiating discharge planning early ensures timely and effective care transitions, which are crucial for managing the client's condition and preventing readmissions. Waiting until after the client stabilizes (choice B) could lead to delays in arranging necessary follow-up care and support services. Similarly, waiting for the client to request discharge planning (choice C) may result in missed opportunities for comprehensive care coordination. Planning at the time of discharge (choice D) is too late, as early intervention is key to promoting the client's well-being and recovery in the long term.
A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has influenza. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?
- A. Airborne
- B. Droplet
- C. Contact
- D. Protective environment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Droplet precautions should be initiated for clients with infections that spread via droplet nuclei larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as influenza, rubella, meningococcal pneumonia, and streptococcal pharyngitis. In the case of influenza, the virus is primarily spread through respiratory droplets produced when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. Airborne precautions are used for pathogens that remain infectious over long distances, typically smaller than 5 microns, like tuberculosis. Contact precautions are for diseases transmitted by direct or indirect contact, and protective environment precautions are for immunocompromised individuals to protect them from environmental pathogens.