Nokea
A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
- D. Serum potassium
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is essential to assess its effectiveness. These values reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and can indicate if the treatment is improving anemia related to chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine are indicators of kidney function, while serum potassium levels are monitored due to electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in kidney disease, but they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.
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Which signs/symptoms would be considered classical signs of meningeal irritation?
- A. Positive Kernig sign, diarrhea, and headache
- B. Negative Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and irritability
- C. Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia
- D. Negative Kernig sign, vomiting, and fever
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia are considered classical signs of meningeal irritation. The Kernig sign is positive when the leg is extended at the knee and then raised, resulting in pain and resistance. The Brudzinski sign is positive when flexing the neck causes flexion of the hips and knees due to meningeal irritation. Photophobia, or sensitivity to light, is a common symptom due to meningeal inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not include the classic signs associated with meningeal irritation.
In planning nursing care for a bedfast client, which factor is most likely to contribute to the development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in an immobile client?
- A. Atherosclerotic plaque formation.
- B. Stasis of blood flow.
- C. Endothelial damage.
- D. Atherosclerotic vessel changes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stasis of blood flow. Stasis of blood flow in immobile clients increases the risk of DVT, as lack of movement can cause blood to pool and clot. Atherosclerotic plaque formation (choice A) and atherosclerotic vessel changes (choice D) are more related to arterial diseases rather than DVT. Endothelial damage (choice C) can contribute to the development of DVT, but in an immobile client, stasis of blood flow is the most significant factor.
Which nursing problem has the highest priority when planning care for a client with Meniere's disease?
- A. Potential for injury related to vertigo.
- B. Alteration in comfort due to ear pain.
- C. Impaired skin integrity due to immobility.
- D. Anxiety due to fear of falling.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When caring for a client with Meniere's disease, the highest priority nursing problem is the potential for injury related to vertigo. Meniere's disease is characterized by symptoms like vertigo, which can increase the risk of falls and injuries. Ensuring the client's safety and preventing falls take precedence over other concerns. Choices B, C, and D are not the highest priority because they do not directly address the immediate risk of harm associated with vertigo and falls.
A male client tells the nurse that he is experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that he had sexual intercourse four days ago with a woman he casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Observe the perineal area for a chancroid-like lesion.
- B. Obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture.
- C. Assess for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation.
- D. Identify all sexual partners in the last four days.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture. This procedure can help diagnose the cause of burning on urination, which could be indicative of a sexually transmitted infection. Option A, observing for a chancroid-like lesion, may not be the most immediate or relevant action in this case. Option C, assessing for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation, is important but obtaining a culture specimen would provide more specific diagnostic information. Option D, identifying all sexual partners, is relevant for contact tracing but obtaining a culture specimen is the priority to determine the current infection status.
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately
- B. Take the medication with antacids to reduce stomach upset
- C. Discontinue the medication if you feel drowsy
- D. Increase the dosage if you experience an aura
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately.' Phenytoin can cause blood dyscrasias, which can manifest as a sore throat or fever. These symptoms could indicate a serious side effect that requires immediate medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with antacids as they can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin abruptly can lead to rebound seizures; drowsiness is a common side effect that may improve with time. Choice D is incorrect because adjusting the dosage of phenytoin should only be done under healthcare provider supervision, not based on experiencing an aura.