Nokea
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client reports difficulty breathing. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate
- B. Instruct the client to breathe deeply and cough
- C. Check the client's oxygen saturation level
- D. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Check the client's oxygen saturation level. This is the first action the nurse should take to assess the effectiveness of the current oxygen therapy and determine the client's oxygenation status. A: Increasing the oxygen flow rate without assessing the client's oxygen saturation level may lead to potential oxygen toxicity. B: Instructing the client to breathe deeply and cough may not address the underlying issue of hypoxemia. D: Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position may help with breathing but does not address the immediate concern of the client's difficulty breathing. Checking the oxygen saturation level provides crucial information for appropriate interventions.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which instruction should the nurse provide to an elderly client who is taking an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker?
- A. Wear long-sleeved clothing when outdoors
- B. Report the onset of sore throat
- C. Eat plenty of potassium-rich food
- D. Change the position slowly
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Change the position slowly. Elderly clients taking both ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers are at risk for orthostatic hypotension. Instructing them to change positions slowly helps prevent sudden drops in blood pressure and dizziness upon standing up.
A: Wearing long-sleeved clothing when outdoors is not directly related to the medications mentioned.
B: Reporting the onset of a sore throat is important for monitoring potential side effects of medications but not specific to the combination of ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers.
C: Eating plenty of potassium-rich foods is not typically contraindicated for clients taking ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers, but it is not the most essential instruction compared to preventing orthostatic hypotension.
In summary, changing position slowly is crucial to prevent orthostatic hypotension, which is a common side effect of these medications in elderly clients.
The nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 75 ml/hour to a client who had a bowel resection 4 days ago. Which laboratory finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Blood glucose of 140 mg/dL
- B. White blood cell count of 8000/mm³
- C. Serum potassium of 3.8 mEq/L
- D. Serum calcium of 7.8 mg/dL
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum calcium of 7.8 mg/dL. This finding indicates hypocalcemia, which can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Low calcium levels can be caused by TPN administration or poor calcium absorption following bowel resection. Immediate intervention may include administering IV calcium gluconate.
A: Blood glucose of 140 mg/dL is within the normal range and not an immediate concern.
B: White blood cell count of 8000/mm³ is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.
C: Serum potassium of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat.
A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination
- B. Notify the parents that the client needs to be picked up from school
- C. Determine the date of the client's last menstrual period
- D. Ask the client to lie down for a pelvic examination
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is the first action the nurse should take because the client is experiencing abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea, which could indicate a gynecological issue. A pelvic examination by a healthcare provider is necessary to assess for any potential reproductive system problems, such as ovarian cysts, endometriosis, or pelvic inflammatory disease. This examination will provide valuable information to diagnose and treat the underlying cause of the client's symptoms.
Choice B is incorrect because notifying the parents to pick up the client does not address the primary concern of evaluating the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. Choice C is also incorrect as determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, while important, does not take precedence over a thorough pelvic examination. Choice D is incorrect as asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination should only be done by a healthcare provider in a proper clinical setting, not in a school clinic.
A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. It dissolves blood clots
- B. It prevents the blood from clotting
- C. It thins the blood
- D. It decreases the risk of infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It prevents the blood from clotting. Warfarin works as an anticoagulant by inhibiting the production of certain clotting factors in the liver. This prevents the formation of blood clots and reduces the risk of conditions like deep vein thrombosis or stroke. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones. Choice C is misleading as it does not actually "thin" the blood but affects its ability to clot. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin.
The nurse assesses a client who is receiving an infusion of 5% dextrose in water with 20 mEq of potassium chloride. The client has oliguria and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the laboratory results
- B. Decrease the rate of the IV infusion
- C. Stop the infusion
- D. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to stop the infusion (Choice C). Oliguria and a high serum potassium level indicate the client is at risk for hyperkalemia, which can be exacerbated by the potassium chloride infusion. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further elevation of potassium levels and potential cardiac complications.
Choice A (Notify the healthcare provider) is not the first action as immediate intervention is needed to prevent harm. Choice B (Decrease the rate of the IV infusion) is not sufficient to address the immediate risk of hyperkalemia. Choice D (Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate) is not appropriate as the first action and should only be considered after stabilizing the client's condition.