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A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute by nasal cannula. The client develops respiratory distress and the nurse increases the oxygen to 4 liters per minute. Shortly afterward, the client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Reposition the nasal cannula
- B. Lower the oxygen rate
- C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
- D. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lower the oxygen rate. Increasing oxygen flow too quickly can lead to oxygen toxicity in COPD patients, causing symptoms like lethargy and confusion. Lowering the oxygen rate will help alleviate the symptoms and prevent further harm. Repositioning the nasal cannula (choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing (choice C) may not address the immediate issue of oxygen toxicity. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice D) is important but should follow lowering the oxygen rate to address the current symptoms.
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The nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 75 ml/hour to a client who had a bowel resection 4 days ago. Which laboratory finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Blood glucose of 140 mg/dL
- B. White blood cell count of 8000/mm³
- C. Serum potassium of 3.8 mEq/L
- D. Serum calcium of 7.8 mg/dL
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum calcium of 7.8 mg/dL. This finding indicates hypocalcemia, which can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Low calcium levels can be caused by TPN administration or poor calcium absorption following bowel resection. Immediate intervention may include administering IV calcium gluconate.
A: Blood glucose of 140 mg/dL is within the normal range and not an immediate concern.
B: White blood cell count of 8000/mm³ is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.
C: Serum potassium of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat.
The nurse is making assignments for a new graduate from a practical nursing program who is orienting to the unit. Because the unit is particularly busy this day, there will be little time to provide supervision of this new employee. Which client is the best for the nurse to assign to this newly graduated practical nurse?
- A. Whose discharge has been delayed because of a postoperative infection
- B. With poorly controlled type 2 diabetes who is on a sliding scale for insulin administration
- C. Newly admitted with a head injury who requires frequent assessments
- D. Receiving IV heparin that is regulated based on protocol
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Whose discharge has been delayed because of a postoperative infection. This assignment is the best choice for the new graduate nurse because a client whose discharge has been delayed due to a postoperative infection is likely stable and requires minimal immediate interventions. This client would benefit from the new nurse's routine care and monitoring skills, allowing the nurse to focus on completing tasks efficiently.
Option B: With poorly controlled type 2 diabetes who is on a sliding scale for insulin administration requires close monitoring and frequent adjustments in insulin dosages, which may be challenging for a new nurse without adequate supervision.
Option C: Newly admitted with a head injury who requires frequent assessments demands critical thinking skills and quick decision-making abilities, which may overwhelm a new nurse who lacks experience in handling such cases.
Option D: Receiving IV heparin that is regulated based on protocol involves complex medication management and monitoring for potential complications, which may be beyond the scope of a new nurse's comfort level without proper guidance.
The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Which outcome is the priority for this child?
- A. Activity tolerance as evidenced by appropriate age-level activities being performed
- B. Absence of skin breakdown as evidenced by intact skin and absence of redness
- C. Maintaining adequate nutritional status as evidenced by stable weight without gain or loss
- D. Maintaining fluid balance as evidenced by a urine output of 1 to 2 ml/kg/hr
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In acute glomerulonephritis, the kidneys are inflamed, affecting fluid balance. Monitoring urine output of 1 to 2 ml/kg/hr is crucial to assess kidney function and prevent fluid overload or dehydration. This is the priority outcome as it directly reflects kidney function and overall fluid balance.
A: Activity tolerance is important but not the priority in acute glomerulonephritis.
B: Absence of skin breakdown is important for overall health but not directly related to the condition.
C: Nutritional status is important, but fluid balance takes precedence in managing acute glomerulonephritis.
In summary, maintaining fluid balance is crucial in managing acute glomerulonephritis as it directly reflects kidney function, while the other options are important but not the priority in this scenario.
When caring for a laboring client whose contractions are occurring every 2-3 minutes, the nurse should document that the pump is infusing how many ml/hour?
- A. 5
- B. 10
- C. 15
- D. 20
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 5 ml/hour. To calculate the infusion rate, you need to divide the total amount infused by the total time in hours. Given contractions every 2-3 minutes, which is equivalent to 20-30 contractions per hour, the pump should infuse at 5 ml/hour to ensure proper medication delivery. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not correspond to the frequency of contractions and may lead to under or overmedication.
An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse's attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?
- A. Have both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant
- B. Listen actively to both nurses and offer suggestions to solve the dilemma
- C. Ask the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies used with the new graduate
- D. Ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse-manager should ask the nurses to meet to identify ways of working together. This is the best action because it promotes open communication, collaboration, and conflict resolution between the two nurses. By facilitating a discussion between them, the nurse-manager can help address the underlying issues, clarify misunderstandings, and find common ground for effective teamwork. This approach encourages mutual understanding and fosters a positive working relationship.
A: Having both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant does not directly address the conflict between them.
B: While listening actively and offering suggestions is important, involving both nurses in the discussion is crucial for resolving the conflict.
C: Asking the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies does not involve the new graduate in the conversation and may not address the overall issue.