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A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 6 liters/minute if the client is short of breath.
- B. Instruct the client to breathe deeply and cough frequently.
- C. Use a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate.
- D. Encourage the client to remove the oxygen when eating or drinking.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because using a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate is the safest intervention for a client with COPD. High flow rates can suppress the client's respiratory drive, leading to hypoventilation. Choice A is incorrect because increasing oxygen flow rate without assessing the client's oxygen saturation can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as deep breathing and coughing can increase oxygen demand and worsen respiratory distress. Choice D is incorrect because oxygen should not be removed during eating or drinking, as it is essential for tissue oxygenation.
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The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- B. Drainage of 75 ml in the first hour post-insertion.
- C. Crepitus around the insertion site.
- D. Fluctuation of the water level in the water seal chamber with respiration.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Crepitus around the insertion site. Crepitus suggests subcutaneous emphysema, which can indicate a pneumothorax or air leak. Immediate intervention is needed to prevent further complications.
A: Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is expected and indicates a functioning chest tube system.
B: Drainage of 75 ml in the first hour post-insertion is within the normal range and should be monitored.
D: Fluctuation of the water level in the water seal chamber with respiration is a normal finding indicating the chest tube is functioning correctly.
A client in labor states, 'I think my water just broke!' The nurse notes that the umbilical cord is on the perineum. What action should the nurse perform first?
- A. Administer oxygen via face mask.
- B. Notify the operating room team.
- C. Place the client in Trendelenburg.
- D. Administer a fluid bolus of 500 ml.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the client in Trendelenburg. This position helps alleviate pressure on the umbilical cord, preventing compression and improving blood flow to the fetus. It is crucial to prioritize this action to prevent fetal distress or compromise. Administering oxygen (A) is important, but not the initial priority. Notifying the operating room team (B) may be necessary but is not the immediate action. Administering a fluid bolus (D) is not indicated in this situation. Placing the client in Trendelenburg is the most appropriate and urgent action to ensure the safety and well-being of the fetus.
What action should the healthcare provider take to reduce the risk of vesicant extravasation in a client receiving intravenous chemotherapy?
- A. Administer an antiemetic before starting the chemotherapy.
- B. Instruct the client to drink plenty of fluids during the treatment.
- C. Keep the head of the bed elevated until the treatment is completed.
- D. Monitor the client's intravenous site hourly during the treatment.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monitor the client's intravenous site hourly during the treatment. This is crucial to reduce the risk of vesicant extravasation, which can cause tissue damage if the chemotherapy leaks into the surrounding tissues. By monitoring the IV site hourly, the healthcare provider can detect any signs of infiltration or extravasation early and take necessary actions to prevent further harm.
A: Administering an antiemetic before starting chemotherapy is unrelated to preventing vesicant extravasation.
B: Instructing the client to drink plenty of fluids does not directly address the risk of vesicant extravasation.
C: Keeping the head of the bed elevated is not specific to preventing vesicant extravasation and may not effectively reduce the risk.
In planning the turning schedule for a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to consider what assessment finding?
- A. 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities.
- B. A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten.
- C. Warm, dry skin with a fever of 100‚° F.
- D. Hypoactive bowel sounds with infrequent bowel movements.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten. This is crucial because the Braden scale assesses the client's risk for developing pressure ulcers. A score of ten indicates a very high risk, requiring frequent repositioning to prevent pressure ulcers.
Choice A is incorrect because 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities indicates fluid overload, not directly related to turning schedule planning.
Choice C is incorrect because warm, dry skin with a fever of 100‚° F suggests a possible infection, but does not affect the need for turning schedule planning.
Choice D is incorrect as hypoactive bowel sounds and infrequent bowel movements are related to gastrointestinal function, not directly impacting the turning schedule.
Which client's laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse?
- A. A client with GI bleeding who is receiving a blood transfusion and has a hemoglobin of 7 grams.
- B. A client with pancreatitis who has a fasting glucose of 190 mg/dl today and had 160 mg/dl yesterday.
- C. A client with hepatitis who is jaundiced and has a bilirubin level that is 4 times the normal value.
- D. A client with cancer who has an absolute neutrophil count < 500 today and had 2,000 yesterday.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with an absolute neutrophil count < 500 is at high risk for serious infections due to severe neutropenia. Neutrophils are crucial for fighting infections, and a low count puts the client at immediate risk. Therefore, intervention is required to prevent life-threatening complications.
Choice A: A hemoglobin of 7 grams in a client with GI bleeding receiving a blood transfusion indicates anemia, but it does not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic.
Choice B: A fasting glucose of 190 mg/dl in a client with pancreatitis is elevated but does not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic or experiencing complications.
Choice C: A bilirubin level 4 times the normal value in a jaundiced client with hepatitis is concerning but does not require immediate intervention unless there are signs of severe liver dysfunction or complications.