Nokea
A client with cirrhosis and ascites is receiving furosemide 40 mg BID. The pharmacy provides 20 mg tablets. How many tablets should the client receive each day? [Enter numeric value only]
- A. 4 tablets
- B. 3 tablets
- C. 2 tablets
- D. 1 tablet
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the total daily dose of furosemide needed, 40 mg BID (twice a day) is 80 mg/day. Since each tablet is 20 mg, the client should receive a total of 4 tablets per day (80 mg · 20 mg per tablet = 4 tablets). Therefore, the correct answer is 4 tablets. Choice B (3 tablets) is incorrect because it does not provide the correct total daily dose. Choice C (2 tablets) is incorrect as it would not meet the required dose of 80 mg/day. Choice D (1 tablet) is incorrect as it would be insufficient to achieve the prescribed daily dose.
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When a student nurse is caught taking a copy of a client's medication administration record to help a friend prepare for the next day's clinical, what should the nurse respond first?
- A. Ask the nursing supervisor to meet with the student.
- B. Notify the student's clinical instructor of the situation.
- C. Ask the student if permission was obtained from the client.
- D. Explain that the records are hospital property and may not be removed.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response when a student nurse is caught taking a copy of a client's medication administration record is to explain that the records are hospital property and cannot be removed. It is essential to educate the student about the confidentiality and security of patient information, emphasizing that even with the client's consent, such actions are unacceptable. Option A is not the immediate action needed, as addressing the student directly should come first. Option B involves notifying another party before addressing the student directly. Option C is incorrect because even if the client gave permission, patient records are confidential and cannot be shared without authorization.
After surgery, a patient has decreased cardiac output. What is a likely observation by the nurse?
- A. Decreased urine output
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Flushing of the skin
- D. Hyperventilation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in cardiac output can lead to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, resulting in decreased urine output. The kidneys rely on adequate blood supply to filter waste and produce urine. Therefore, a decreased urine output is a common observation when cardiac output is reduced. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output; flushing of the skin is more related to vasodilation, and hyperventilation is not directly linked to decreased cardiac output.
The client is being taught how to perform active range of motion (ROM) exercises. To exercise the hinge joints, which action should the client be instructed to perform?
- A. Tilt the pelvis forwards and backwards
- B. Bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus
- C. Turn the head to the right and left
- D. Extend the arm at the side and rotate it in circles
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hinge joints, like the elbow, primarily allow movement in one direction, in this case, bending the arm. The correct action to exercise hinge joints is to bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus. This movement specifically targets the hinge joint and promotes its range of motion. Choices A, C, and D involve movements that do not specifically target hinge joints. Tilt the pelvis involves the ball-and-socket joints of the hip, turning the head involves the pivot joint of the neck, and extending the arm and rotating it in circles involve multiple joints including ball-and-socket and pivot joints.
A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is admitted with chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG)
- C. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
- D. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing chest pain, the priority intervention for the nurse to implement first is to apply oxygen via nasal cannula. Oxygenation is crucial to ensure adequate oxygen supply to the tissues and the heart. This intervention takes precedence over administering sublingual nitroglycerin, obtaining an ECG, or initiating continuous cardiac monitoring. While these interventions are important, ensuring adequate oxygenation is the initial priority in the management of a client with chest pain.
During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?
- A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
- B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
- C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
- D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.