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A client with cirrhosis is prescribed spironolactone to manage ascites. Which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Sodium
- B. Calcium
- C. Magnesium
- D. Potassium
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not directly affected by spironolactone use for managing ascites in cirrhosis.
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After a lumbar puncture, a client reports a severe headache. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer a dose of acetaminophen.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Encourage the client to rest in a dark room.
- D. Administer caffeine to relieve the headache.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, a severe headache is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Elevating the head of the bed or having the client lie flat can reduce cerebrospinal fluid pressure and alleviate the headache. These positions help prevent further fluid loss and relieve discomfort. While acetaminophen or caffeine may help in relieving the headache, changing the client's position is the priority to address the underlying cause. Resting in a dark room may be beneficial for headache relief but is not the priority intervention compared to adjusting the position to manage cerebrospinal fluid pressure.
A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis presents with weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of corticosteroids.
- B. Place the client in a supine position.
- C. Encourage oral fluid intake.
- D. Review the client's recent medication history.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of corticosteroids is the correct first action when a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy presents with weakness and hypotension. In this scenario, the client is likely experiencing adrenal insufficiency due to prolonged corticosteroid use. Administering corticosteroids promptly can help correct this insufficiency and improve the client's symptoms. Placing the client in a supine position may be necessary for symptomatic hypotension, but addressing the root cause with corticosteroids is more crucial initially. Encouraging oral fluid intake is important for many conditions but is not the priority in this case. Reviewing the client's recent medication history can provide valuable information but is not the first action needed to address the client's current presentation.
The nurse is teaching a group of women about osteoporosis and exercise. The nurse should emphasize the need for which type of regular activity?
- A. Weight-bearing exercise
- B. Aerobic exercise
- C. Low-impact exercises such as swimming
- D. Stretching and flexibility exercises
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight-bearing exercise. Weight-bearing exercise helps build and maintain bone density, which is critical in preventing osteoporosis. Activities like aerobic exercises, stretching, and low-impact exercises such as swimming are beneficial for overall fitness but do not directly contribute to improving bone strength, making them less effective in preventing osteoporosis.
A client with hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. What teaching should the nurse provide about this medication?
- A. Instruct the client to avoid high-potassium foods.
- B. Monitor the client's heart rate and report any bradycardia.
- C. Advise the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position.
- D. Instruct the client to avoid sudden position changes.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position. Beta-blockers can cause bradycardia and hypotension, so clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness and falls. Monitoring the client's heart rate and blood pressure regularly is essential. Instructing the client to avoid high-potassium foods (Choice A) is not directly related to beta-blockers. While monitoring the client's heart rate (Choice B) is important, advising the client to rise slowly (Choice C) is more directly related to potential side effects of beta-blockers. Instructing the client to avoid sudden position changes (Choice D) is not as specific or essential as advising them to rise slowly to prevent adverse effects.
A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Auscultate lung sounds.
- D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.