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A client with cystic fibrosis is admitted with a pulmonary exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer a high-calorie, high-protein diet.
- B. Initiate airway clearance techniques.
- C. Encourage the client to maintain an active lifestyle.
- D. Monitor for signs of respiratory distress.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During a pulmonary exacerbation in cystic fibrosis, the priority intervention is to initiate airway clearance techniques. These techniques help clear mucus from the airways, improving ventilation and reducing the risk of respiratory complications. Administering a high-calorie, high-protein diet is beneficial for overall nutrition but is not the priority during an exacerbation. Encouraging an active lifestyle is important for long-term health but does not address the immediate need for managing exacerbations. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress is important, but initiating airway clearance techniques takes precedence in the management of pulmonary exacerbations in cystic fibrosis.
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A patient taking hormonal contraceptives will soon turn 35 years of age. She is moderately obese and has smoked for 15 years. Which of the following is most important?
- A. Begin an exercise regimen.
- B. Begin smoking cessation.
- C. Begin daily aspirin therapy.
- D. Begin taking a loop diuretic to aid weight loss.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most important action for a patient taking hormonal contraceptives, who is nearing 35 years of age, moderately obese, and has a history of smoking for 15 years, is to begin smoking cessation. Women over 35, especially smokers, are at an increased risk of blood clots and cardiovascular issues when using hormonal contraceptives. Smoking cessation is crucial to reduce this risk. Beginning an exercise regimen may be beneficial for overall health but is not as critical as stopping smoking in this scenario. Daily aspirin therapy or taking a loop diuretic are not indicated in this situation and may not address the primary risk associated with hormonal contraceptives and smoking.
A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?
- A. IgG
- B. IgA
- C. IgM
- D. IgD
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.
A woman is being treated with clomiphene citrate for the treatment of infertility. She states to the nurse that she has seen an increase in vaginal discharge. The nurse knows that this effect is related to:
- A. Increased blood flow to the vaginal area.
- B. Increased cervical mucus production.
- C. Increased production of vaginal secretions.
- D. Increased lubrication in the vaginal canal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Increased production of vaginal secretions.' Clomiphene citrate affects cervical mucus production, leading to an increase in vaginal secretions. This effect is beneficial for fertility as it helps create a more hospitable environment for sperm transport. Choice A, 'Increased blood flow to the vaginal area,' is incorrect as the increase in vaginal discharge is primarily due to changes in cervical mucus. Choice B, 'Increased cervical mucus production,' is partially correct but does not fully explain the increase in vaginal secretions. Choice D, 'Increased lubrication in the vaginal canal,' is not directly related to the effect seen with clomiphene citrate treatment for infertility.
A 52-year-old male patient is taking finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What patient teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Avoid taking NSAIDs while on this medication.
- C. Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking this medication.
- D. Women who are or may become pregnant should not handle crushed or broken tablets.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Finasteride, used for BPH, can be harmful to a developing male fetus. Therefore, women who are or may become pregnant should not handle crushed or broken tablets to avoid potential absorption through the skin. Choice A is incorrect as finasteride can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between finasteride and NSAIDs mentioned. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride does not typically cause drowsiness or impair mental alertness.
Which of the following characteristics is common in both malignant and benign tumors?
- A. Uncontrolled cell growth
- B. Rapid growth
- C. Metastasis
- D. Invasion of surrounding tissue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uncontrolled cell growth. This characteristic is common to both malignant and benign tumors. Benign tumors are non-cancerous growths that do not invade nearby tissue or spread to other parts of the body. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Rapid growth, metastasis, and invasion of surrounding tissue are characteristics typically associated with malignant tumors.