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A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). The client asks, 'How long will it take for this medication to work?' What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you start feeling better.
- B. You should start feeling better within a few days.
- C. The medication works immediately to improve your mood.
- D. It may take up to 8 weeks for the medication to take full effect.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Explaining that it may take up to 8 weeks for the medication to take full effect provides the client with a realistic expectation. SSRI medications typically require time to build up in the body and exert their therapeutic effects. Choice A is incorrect as it underestimates the time frame required for the medication to work. Choice B is incorrect as SSRIs do not produce immediate effects. Choice C is incorrect as it falsely states that the medication works immediately, which is not true for SSRIs.
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The LPN/LVN is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and requires immediate attention?
- A. Very high temperature
- B. Muscular rigidity
- C. Tremors
- D. Altered consciousness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A very high temperature is a hallmark symptom of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), which is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. This symptom is uniquely indicative of NMS and requires immediate medical attention. Muscular rigidity, tremors, and altered consciousness can be seen in other conditions but are not as specifically linked to NMS as a very high temperature.
A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?
- A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
- B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
- C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
- D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.
A client with anorexia nervosa is being treated in an inpatient unit. Which intervention is a priority for the nurse?
- A. Encourage the client to exercise to build muscle mass.
- B. Provide liquid supplements between meals.
- C. Allow the client to choose their own meals.
- D. Monitor the client's weight daily.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring the client's weight daily is a priority intervention for a nurse caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. Weight monitoring is crucial in assessing the client's progress and adjusting treatment as necessary to prevent complications such as refeeding syndrome, electrolyte imbalances, and cardiac issues. Encouraging exercise (Choice A) can exacerbate the client's unhealthy relationship with food and body image. Providing liquid supplements (Choice B) is important but may not be the priority over monitoring weight. Allowing the client to choose their own meals (Choice C) may not be suitable initially as they may make unhealthy choices or avoid meals altogether.
A female client with obsessive compulsive personality disorder is admitted to the hospital for a cardiac catheterization. The afternoon before the procedure, the client begins to keep detailed notes of the nursing care she is receiving and reports her findings to the RN at bedtime. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Explain to the client that her behavior invades the rights of the nursing staff.
- B. Ask the client to explain why she is keeping a detailed record of her nursing care.
- C. Teach the client strategies to control her obsessive compulsive behavior.
- D. Encourage the client to express her feelings regarding the upcoming procedure.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging the client to express her feelings can help address underlying anxieties and may reduce the need for obsessive behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because it may come across as confrontational and could escalate the situation. Choice B is not the best initial action as it focuses on the behavior rather than the client's emotions. Choice C is premature without first addressing the client's emotional needs.
A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that she wants to stop taking her lithium. She states, 'I feel fine, and I don't think I need it anymore.' What should the nurse do first?
- A. Agree with the client that she seems fine now.
- B. Remind the client of the importance of lithium.
- C. Ask the healthcare provider to discontinue the lithium prescription.
- D. Arrange for a psychiatric evaluation for the client.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder expresses a desire to stop taking lithium because they feel fine, the nurse's initial action should be to remind the client of the importance of lithium. This approach helps educate the client about the necessity of medication adherence in managing bipolar disorder. Agreeing with the client or immediately arranging a psychiatric evaluation may not address the root issue of medication non-adherence. Asking the healthcare provider to discontinue the prescription without further assessment and intervention could potentially jeopardize the client's stability and treatment plan.