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A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky, dizzy, and sweaty. The nurse checks the client's blood glucose level and it is 55 mg/dL. What is the nurse's next action?
- A. Give the client a glucagon injection
- B. Encourage the client to eat a high-protein snack
- C. Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
- D. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, which should be treated with a fast-acting carbohydrate to quickly raise the blood sugar. Administering 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets or juice, is the appropriate initial intervention for hypoglycemia. Giving a glucagon injection is reserved for severe cases or when the client is unconscious. Encouraging the client to eat a high-protein snack is not appropriate for treating acute hypoglycemia, as it is a slower-acting form of glucose. Rechecking the blood glucose level is important but should occur after providing immediate treatment to raise the blood sugar level.
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A client with a head injury reports severe nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer anti-nausea medication as prescribed.
- B. Prepare the client for a CT scan.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed and provide an emesis basin.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Severe nausea in a client with a head injury may be a sign of increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure timely intervention, as increased pressure can lead to further complications such as brain herniation. Administering anti-nausea medication or preparing for a CT scan may delay necessary treatment for the underlying cause of the nausea, which could be related to the head injury. Elevating the head of the bed and providing an emesis basin may help manage symptoms but should not be the priority over addressing the potential increase in intracranial pressure.
An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to
- A. Administer the medication in 2 separate injections
- B. Give the medication in the dorsal gluteal site
- C. Call to get a smaller volume ordered
- D. Check with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Injections over 1 mL should be split into two separate injections for young children. This helps in preventing discomfort, ensuring proper absorption, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Giving the medication in one injection of 2.0 ml might be too much for a 2-year-old child. Choices B and D are incorrect because the dorsal gluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential injury, and changing the form of medication might not be necessary if the volume can be adjusted. Choice C is unnecessary as splitting the dose into two injections is the appropriate action.
A client with lupus erythematosus is prescribed prednisone. What teaching should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
- B. Avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection.
- C. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
- D. Take extra calcium supplements to prevent osteoporosis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct teaching for a client with lupus erythematosus prescribed prednisone is to avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection. Prednisone suppresses the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Taking the medication with food may help reduce stomach upset but is not the priority teaching. Taking prednisone in the morning may help reduce insomnia, but infection prevention is more critical. While prednisone can lead to osteoporosis, advising extra calcium supplements is not the most immediate concern when starting the medication.
A client with advanced chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload
- B. Increase sodium intake to improve fluid balance
- C. Increase potassium intake to prevent hypokalemia
- D. Increase protein intake to promote healing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.' Clients with advanced chronic kidney disease are at risk of fluid retention, which can lead to complications like fluid overload and hypertension. Therefore, it is crucial to instruct the client to limit fluid intake. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can exacerbate fluid retention and hypertension in clients with CKD. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake can be dangerous for clients with CKD who may already have elevated potassium levels. Choice D is incorrect because while protein intake may need to be adjusted for clients on hemodialysis, the priority in this case is managing fluid intake.
A client is admitted with a suspected gastrointestinal bleed. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Bright red blood in the vomit.
- B. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate.
- C. Coffee ground emesis.
- D. Dark, tarry stools.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dark, tarry stools indicate the presence of digested blood in the gastrointestinal tract, signifying a higher gastrointestinal bleed. This finding requires immediate intervention due to the potential severity of the bleed. Bright red blood in the vomit may indicate active bleeding but is not as concerning as digested blood. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate are common responses to bleeding but do not provide direct evidence of the source or severity of the bleed. Coffee ground emesis is indicative of partially digested blood and is a concern but not as urgent as dark, tarry stools.