Nokea
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed dapagliflozin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Genital infections
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Nausea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dapagliflozin, a medication used in diabetes mellitus type 2, is associated with an increased risk of genital infections. This risk is due to its mechanism of action that involves promoting the excretion of glucose through the urine, creating a favorable environment for microbial growth in the genital area. Therefore, monitoring for genital infections is essential when a client is prescribed dapagliflozin.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed infliximab. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of infection
- B. Bone marrow suppression
- C. Hair loss
- D. Pancreatitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. Infliximab is known to increase the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs of infection in the client receiving infliximab to promptly address any potential complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being.
A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed paroxetine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Paroxetine, used for generalized anxiety disorder, can cause drowsiness. Clients should be advised not to drive or operate heavy machinery until they know how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are potential side effects of other medications but are not commonly associated with paroxetine.
A client taking long-term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed. The nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together?
- A. Ranitidine reduces the risk of ulcers associated with steroids.
- B. Ranitidine decreases the risk of infection associated with steroids.
- C. Ranitidine decreases blood sugar elevations associated with steroids.
- D. Ranitidine reduces sodium retention associated with steroid usage.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ranitidine is prescribed with long-term steroids to reduce the risk of ulcers associated with steroid therapy. Although steroids can increase the risk of ulcers due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system, ranitidine works by reducing stomach acid production, thus helping to prevent ulcer formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as ranitidine is not given to decrease the risk of infection, reduce blood sugar elevations, or reduce sodium retention associated with steroid usage.
A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
What is the primary nursing intervention that the practical nurse should perform before administering ampicillin to a client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection?
- A. Obtain a clean-catch urine specimen.
- B. Assess the urine pH for acidity.
- C. Insert an indwelling catheter.
- D. Assess for complaints of dysuria.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most important nursing intervention before administering ampicillin to a client with a urinary tract infection is to obtain a clean-catch urine specimen. This specimen is crucial for determining the causative organism and evaluating the effectiveness of pharmacological therapy. It should be collected before starting treatment with an anti-infective agent to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of the infection.