Nokea
A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?
- A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
- B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
- C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.
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Which of the following best describes the nurse's role in maintaining patient dignity?
- A. The nurse ensures that the patient is treated with respect and that their personal beliefs and values are considered in their care.
- B. The nurse maintains the patient's dignity by ensuring privacy during personal care activities.
- C. The nurse ensures that the patient's personal information is kept private and only shared with those directly involved in their care.
- D. The nurse ensures that the patient is involved in decisions about their care and that their preferences are respected.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse's role in maintaining patient dignity goes beyond just privacy during personal care activities. It involves treating the patient with respect, considering their personal beliefs and values in their care. While privacy is important for dignity, respecting personal beliefs and values is equally crucial. Choice B focuses solely on privacy, overlooking the broader aspects of dignity maintenance. Choices C and D, although important in patient care, do not fully capture the comprehensive approach needed for maintaining patient dignity as described in choice A.
A healthcare professional reviews a client's electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would the healthcare professional note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?
- A. U waves
- B. Absent P waves
- C. Elevated T waves
- D. Elevated ST segment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: U waves. A low potassium level (hypokalemia) can manifest as U waves on an ECG. U waves are small, extra deflections seen after the T wave and may indicate cardiac irritability. Absent P waves (Choice B) are associated with conditions like atrial fibrillation. Elevated T waves (Choice C) can be seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Elevated ST segment (Choice D) is not typically associated with low potassium levels but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication orders for a client with hypothyroidism. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional question?
- A. Levothyroxine
- B. Amiodarone
- C. Calcium supplements
- D. Aspirin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amiodarone. Amiodarone can affect thyroid function and potentially worsen hypothyroidism, so its use should be carefully considered or questioned in clients with this condition. Levothyroxine (Choice A) is the mainstay therapy for hypothyroidism and should not be questioned in this scenario. Calcium supplements (Choice C) are not typically contraindicated in clients with hypothyroidism and may be needed if there is a deficiency. Aspirin (Choice D) is not directly related to thyroid function and is not a medication that would typically be questioned in a client with hypothyroidism.
Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?
- A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day
- B. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour
- C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg
- D. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct outcome indicating effective treatment of diabetes insipidus in a male client is a fluid intake of less than 2,500 ml/day. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination causes increased fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss. By effectively managing the condition, the client's fluid intake should decrease. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. Increased urine output (choice B) may indicate inadequate control of the condition, while low blood pressure (choice C) and a high heart rate (choice D) are not specific indicators of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus.
How often should rotation sites for insulin injection be separated from one another?
- A. Every third day.
- B. Every week.
- C. Every 2-3 weeks.
- D. Every 2-4 weeks.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Insulin injection sites should be rotated every 2-3 weeks to prevent lipodystrophy and ensure proper insulin absorption. Option A ('Every third day') is too frequent and does not allow enough time for the previous site to heal properly. Option B ('Every week') might not provide adequate time for the tissue to recover. Option D ('Every 2-4 weeks') could potentially lead to overuse of a single injection site, increasing the risk of lipodystrophy and inconsistent insulin absorption. Therefore, the recommended interval of every 2-3 weeks is optimal for insulin injection site rotation.