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A client with early Parkinson's disease has been prescribed pramipexole. What adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?
- A. Hallucinations
- B. Increased salivation
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Discoloration of urine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hallucinations. Pramipexole can lead to hallucinations within 9 months of the initial dose, which may necessitate discontinuation of the medication. Monitoring for hallucinations is crucial to ensure early detection and management to prevent any adverse outcomes. Choice B, increased salivation, is not a common adverse effect of pramipexole. Choice C, diarrhea, is not typically associated with pramipexole use. Choice D, discoloration of urine, is not a known adverse effect of pramipexole and is not typically a concern with this medication.
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A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?
- A. One
- B. Two
- C. Three
- D. Four
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phenobarbital, with a long half-life of 4 days, remains at therapeutic levels in the body for an extended period. Due to this prolonged duration of action, the nurse should administer phenobarbital once a day to maintain a consistent therapeutic effect without the need for multiple daily doses. Administering the medication more than once a day would not be necessary and could increase the risk of side effects or toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer phenobarbital once a day.
When a client has a new prescription for Warfarin, which of the following foods should they avoid based on the nurse's instructions?
- A. Broccoli
- B. Bananas
- C. Chicken
- D. Potatoes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clients prescribed Warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K, like broccoli, as they can counteract the medication's effectiveness. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so consuming high vitamin K foods can interfere with its anticoagulant effects. Bananas, chicken, and potatoes are not high in vitamin K and do not have a significant impact on Warfarin therapy.
A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. Consume potassium-rich foods.
- C. Take this medication with food.
- D. Monitor for signs of dehydration.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of dehydration. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and dehydration. The client should be educated to watch for symptoms like dry mouth, increased thirst, weakness, dizziness, and decreased urine output. Prompt recognition of dehydration signs is crucial for timely intervention and prevention of complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Hydrochlorothiazide in the morning is not a specific instruction for this medication. While potassium-rich foods can be important when taking certain medications, it is not the priority instruction for Hydrochlorothiazide. Taking this medication with food may help reduce stomach upset but is not the most critical instruction for a diuretic like Hydrochlorothiazide.
While assessing a client taking Amiodarone to treat Atrial Fibrillation, which of the following findings is indicative of Amiodarone toxicity?
- A. Light yellow urine
- B. Report of tinnitus
- C. Productive cough
- D. Blue-gray skin discoloration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Productive cough can indicate pulmonary toxicity, which is a known adverse effect of Amiodarone. Clients on Amiodarone should be monitored for signs of pulmonary toxicity such as cough, dyspnea, and chest pain. This is important to detect early and prevent serious complications. The other options are not typically associated with Amiodarone toxicity. Light yellow urine is not a common sign, tinnitus is more related to ear problems, and blue-gray skin discoloration is not a recognized symptom of Amiodarone toxicity.
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?
- A. Urinary retention
- B. Tachypnea
- C. Hypertension
- D. Irritating cough
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.