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A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed omeprazole. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Coat the lining of the stomach
- B. Neutralize stomach acid
- C. Promote gastric motility
- D. Reduce gastric acid secretion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce gastric acid secretion. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing the production of gastric acid in the stomach. This helps in managing GERD by decreasing the acidity levels in the stomach. Choice A is incorrect because omeprazole does not coat the lining of the stomach. Choice B is incorrect as omeprazole does not neutralize stomach acid but rather reduces its production. Choice C is incorrect because omeprazole does not promote gastric motility; instead, it acts on acid secretion.
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A client is receiving IV antibiotic therapy for sepsis. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?
- A. Urine output increases to 25 mL/hour
- B. Client reports feeling less fatigued
- C. Heart rate decreases from 120 to 110 beats per minute
- D. White blood cell count decreases from 15,000 to 9,000/mm3
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment, making this the most objective indicator of improvement in a client with sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are subjective indicators and may not always directly correlate with the resolution of the underlying infection. While an increase in urine output, a client reporting feeling less fatigued, and a decrease in heart rate are positive signs, they are not as specific or directly related to the resolution of the infection as a decrease in white blood cell count.
The nurse is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis who is taking a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
- A. Potassium
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. White blood cell count
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a client with rheumatoid arthritis is taking NSAIDs, the nurse should monitor serum creatinine levels. NSAIDs can potentially cause kidney damage, so monitoring creatinine levels helps assess for renal impairment. While monitoring hemoglobin, potassium, and white blood cell count may also be relevant in some cases, serum creatinine is the priority due to the risk of renal complications associated with NSAID use.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just received anesthesia. What is the most critical finding to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Client reports dizziness
- B. Client has a drop in blood pressure
- C. Client experiences mild nausea
- D. Client reports dry mouth
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A significant drop in blood pressure following anesthesia could indicate a serious reaction, such as hypovolemia or anesthetic-induced hypotension. This requires immediate medical attention, while other symptoms like dizziness, mild nausea, and dry mouth are more common and less critical. Dizziness could be expected due to the effects of anesthesia, mild nausea is a common side effect, and dry mouth is a known effect of anesthesia as well.
The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving dialysis. The client reports muscle cramps and tingling in the hands. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to identify the cause of these symptoms?
- A. Sodium
- B. Calcium
- C. Phosphate
- D. Potassium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Muscle cramps and tingling in clients with chronic renal failure are often associated with hypocalcemia. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to identify imbalances and manage symptoms appropriately. Sodium, phosphate, and potassium levels are important in renal failure but are not directly related to the symptoms of muscle cramps and tingling reported by the client.
An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted with acute onset of weakness, palpitation, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?
- A. Medication compliance over the past few weeks.
- B. Recent sleep patterns and rest.
- C. Recent history of smoking.
- D. Activity level prior to symptom onset.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medication compliance over the past few weeks. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts symptom control and disease management. Ensuring the client has been adherent to their prescribed medications can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors or the need for adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are less critical during the initial assessment compared to medication compliance. Recent sleep patterns and rest (choice B) may be relevant but are secondary to ensuring proper medication management. While smoking history (choice C) is important in chronic lung conditions, the immediate focus should be on the current status of medication use. Activity level prior to symptom onset (choice D) is also pertinent but not as crucial as confirming medication compliance to address the acute symptoms.