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A client with gestational diabetes, at 39 weeks of gestation, is in the second stage of labor. After delivering the fetal head, the nurse recognizes that shoulder dystocia is occurring. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean birth
- B. Encourage the client to move to a hands-and-knees position
- C. Assist the client to sharply flex her thighs up against the abdomen
- D. Lower the head of the bed and apply suprapubic pressure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In cases of shoulder dystocia, the priority intervention is to assist the client in sharply flexing her thighs up against the abdomen (McRoberts maneuver). This action helps to widen the pelvic outlet. Encouraging the client to move to a hands-and-knees position may also be beneficial in some cases but is not the first-line intervention. Preparing for an emergency cesarean birth and applying suprapubic pressure are not appropriate initial interventions for shoulder dystocia.
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The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Jugular venous distention
- B. Shortness of breath
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, crackles in the lungs are the most concerning finding as they indicate pulmonary congestion, which requires immediate intervention to prevent worsening heart failure symptoms and respiratory distress. Jugular venous distention, shortness of breath, and peripheral edema are also common in heart failure but are not as critical as crackles in the lungs because they may indicate fluid overload or right-sided heart failure, which are important to address but not as urgently as managing pulmonary congestion.
Following a gunshot wound to the abdomen, a young adult male had an emergency bowel resection and received multiple blood products. His current blood pressure is 78/52 mm Hg, and he is being mechanically ventilated. His oxygen saturation is 87%. Laboratory values indicate hemoglobin of 7 g/dL, platelets of 20,000/mm³, and white blood cells of 2,000/mm³. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Transfuse packed red blood cells.
- B. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.
- C. Infuse 1000 ml of normal saline.
- D. Titrate oxygen to keep O2 saturation above 90%.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to transfuse packed red blood cells first. The client's low hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL indicates severe anemia, which requires immediate transfusion to increase oxygen-carrying capacity. While obtaining blood and sputum cultures (Choice B) is important to identify potential infections, addressing the critical issue of anemia takes precedence. Infusing normal saline (Choice C) may help with volume status but does not address the primary concern of low hemoglobin. Titration of oxygen (Choice D) is crucial, but transfusion to improve oxygen-carrying capacity should be the priority in this scenario.
The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
- B. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
- C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
- D. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L is concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen as it indicates metabolic acidosis, which can occur due to the body compensating for chronic respiratory acidosis. This condition requires immediate intervention to restore the acid-base balance.
Choice A, serum sodium of 135 mEq/L, is within normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and not directly related to COPD or oxygen therapy. Choice B, serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L, falls within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and is not typically affected by COPD or oxygen therapy. Choice D, serum glucose of 300 mg/dl, though elevated, is not directly related to COPD or oxygen therapy and would require management but is not the most concerning value in this scenario.
A client with a postoperative wound that eviscerated yesterday has an elevated temperature. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Initiate contact isolation.
- B. Obtain a wound swab for culture and sensitivity.
- C. Assess temperature every 4 hours.
- D. Use alcohol-based solutions for hand hygiene.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most critical intervention is to obtain a wound swab for culture and sensitivity. This will help identify the causative organism present in the wound, enabling healthcare providers to prescribe the appropriate treatment. Initiating contact isolation (Choice A) may be necessary in certain situations but is not the priority in this case where infection is suspected. Assessing the temperature (Choice C) is important for monitoring the client's condition but does not address the underlying cause. Using alcohol-based solutions for hand hygiene (Choice D) is a standard practice for infection control but does not directly address the client's specific condition of a postoperative wound with evisceration and elevated temperature.
A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is admitted with chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- D. Echocardiogram
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An electrocardiogram should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of CAD and chest pain. An ECG provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity, helping to identify signs of ischemia or a heart attack. While other diagnostic tests like chest X-ray, arterial blood gases, and echocardiogram may also be necessary in the evaluation of chest pain, they do not provide the initial direct assessment of cardiac ischemia that an ECG does.