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A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?
- A. Decreased peripheral edema.
- B. Elevated blood pressure.
- C. Increased heart rate.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased peripheral edema. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps to remove excess fluid from the body, which can reduce peripheral edema in patients with heart failure. This indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload in the body. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) would not be an expected outcome of furosemide use. Increased heart rate (choice C) is not a direct effect of furosemide and can indicate worsening heart failure. Decreased urine output (choice D) would be an adverse effect of furosemide and would indicate the medication is not working as intended.
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When should the charge nurse intervene based on the observed behavior?
- A. Two staff members are overheard talking about a cure for AIDS outside a client's room.
- B. A hospital transporter is reading a client's history and physical while waiting for an elevator.
- C. A UAP tells a client, 'It's hard to quit drinking but Alcoholics Anonymous helped me.'
- D. Two visitors are discussing a hospitalized client's history of drug abuse in the visitor's lounge.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it violates patient confidentiality. Reading a client's history and physical in a public area breaches the client's privacy rights. The other choices do not directly compromise patient confidentiality. A involves discussing a cure for AIDS, which is not a breach of confidentiality. C involves sharing personal experiences with the client, and D involves discussing a client's history of drug abuse in a visitor's lounge, which may not be overheard by the client or staff directly involved in the client's care.
The healthcare provider prescribes 15 mg/kg of Streptomycin for an infant weighing 4 pounds. The drug is diluted in 25 ml of D5W to run over 8 hours. How much Streptomycin will the infant receive?
- A. 9 mg
- B. 18 mg
- C. 27 mg
- D. 36 mg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the dose of Streptomycin, we first need to convert the infant's weight from pounds to kg (4 lbs = 1.81 kg). Then, we multiply the weight in kg by the prescribed dose (15 mg/kg) to get the total dose (1.81 kg * 15 mg/kg = 27.15 mg). Since the drug is diluted in 25 ml of D5W, the infant will receive 27.15 mg in 25 ml solution. To find how much Streptomycin the infant actually receives, we need to calculate the amount in 1 ml (27.15 mg / 25 ml = 1.086 mg/ml). Finally, to determine how much the infant will receive over 8 hours, we multiply the concentration by the infusion rate (1.086 mg/ml * 25 ml * 8 hours = 217.2 mg). Therefore, the correct answer is A: 9 mg, as it represents the amount
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is an important teaching point for the nurse to provide?
- A. Take folic acid supplements as prescribed.
- B. Avoid alcohol completely.
- C. Expect to see immediate results.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Take folic acid supplements as prescribed. Methotrexate can lead to folic acid deficiency, causing side effects. Supplementing with folic acid can help manage these side effects. It is crucial for the nurse to emphasize the importance of taking folic acid as prescribed to prevent adverse effects.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Avoid alcohol completely - While alcohol should be limited or avoided due to potential liver toxicity with methotrexate, complete avoidance may not be necessary for all patients.
C: Expect to see immediate results - Methotrexate takes time to work, and patients should not expect immediate results. Patience is necessary.
D: Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day - There is no specific guideline to limit fluid intake with methotrexate. Adequate hydration is important for overall health.
A patient with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?
- A. With meals
- B. At bedtime
- C. Before meals
- D. After meals
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Before meals. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works best when taken before meals to inhibit acid secretion before food intake. Taking it with meals (choice A) may decrease its effectiveness as it needs time to be absorbed. Taking it at bedtime (choice B) may not provide optimal coverage throughout the day. Taking it after meals (choice D) may not allow enough time for the medication to start working before the next meal.
A patient with chronic pain is prescribed a fentanyl patch. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?
- A. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
- B. Change the patch every 72 hours.
- C. Avoid using additional heating pads over the patch.
- D. Remove the patch before showering.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Change the patch every 72 hours. Fentanyl patches are typically designed to be worn for 72 hours before being replaced to maintain consistent pain relief. Changing the patch on time helps prevent withdrawal symptoms and ensures the effectiveness of the medication.
A: Applying the patch to a different site each time is important to prevent skin irritation but is not the most crucial instruction.
C: Avoiding heating pads over the patch is important to prevent overheating and excessive absorption of the medication, but changing the patch timely is more critical.
D: Removing the patch before showering is not necessary as fentanyl patches are designed to be water-resistant.