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A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?
- A. Decreased peripheral edema.
- B. Elevated blood pressure.
- C. Increased heart rate.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased peripheral edema. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps to remove excess fluid from the body, which can reduce peripheral edema in patients with heart failure. This indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload in the body. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) would not be an expected outcome of furosemide use. Increased heart rate (choice C) is not a direct effect of furosemide and can indicate worsening heart failure. Decreased urine output (choice D) would be an adverse effect of furosemide and would indicate the medication is not working as intended.
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A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Increase thyroid hormone production
- B. Suppress thyroid hormone production
- C. Enhance iodine absorption
- D. Stimulate the thyroid gland
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppress thyroid hormone production. PTU is an antithyroid medication used to inhibit the synthesis of thyroid hormones, effectively suppressing their production. This helps to manage hyperthyroidism by reducing excessive levels of thyroid hormones in the body. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as PTU does not aim to increase hormone production, enhance iodine absorption, or stimulate the thyroid gland. Understanding the mechanism of action of PTU is crucial in recognizing its primary purpose in treating hyperthyroidism.
The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?
- A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
- B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
- C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
- D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sevelamer (RenaGel) is a phosphate binder used in ESRD to bind with phosphorus in foods, preventing its absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. This is important as ESRD patients often have high levels of phosphorus in their blood, which can lead to complications like cardiovascular disease. Taking RenaGel with meals ensures that it binds with phosphorus in the food, reducing its absorption.
Choice A is incorrect as RenaGel does not prevent indigestion associated with spicy foods. Choice C is incorrect as RenaGel does not promote stomach emptying or prevent gastric reflux. Choice D is incorrect as RenaGel does not buffer hydrochloric acid or prevent gastric erosion.
A patient with an anxiety disorder is prescribed alprazolam. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Increase energy levels
- B. Induce sedation
- C. Elevate mood
- D. Reduce anxiety
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce anxiety. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine that acts on the central nervous system to enhance the effects of a neurotransmitter called GABA, which helps to calm the brain and reduce anxiety. This medication does not increase energy levels (choice A), induce sedation (choice B), or elevate mood (choice C). Alprazolam's primary action is to target and alleviate the symptoms of anxiety by promoting relaxation and reducing excessive brain activity associated with anxiety disorders.
After performing a paracentesis on a client with ascites, 3 liters of fluid are removed. Which assessment parameter is most critical for the nurse to monitor following the procedure?
- A. Pedal pulses.
- B. Breath sounds.
- C. Gag reflex.
- D. Vital signs.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Vital signs. After paracentesis, monitoring vital signs is crucial as fluid removal can lead to changes in blood pressure, heart rate, and overall fluid balance. Hypotension or tachycardia may indicate hypovolemia or shock. Pedal pulses (A) are important but not as critical post-paracentesis. Breath sounds (B) are important for respiratory assessment but not directly related to fluid removal. Gag reflex (C) is unrelated to paracentesis and not a priority post-procedure.
What instruction should the nurse give regarding the administration of alendronate to a patient with osteoporosis?
- A. Take the medication with milk.
- B. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- D. Take the medication before bedtime.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Take the medication with a full glass of water. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water on an empty stomach in the morning to enhance absorption. Option A is incorrect because taking alendronate with milk decreases its absorption. Option B is incorrect as lying down after taking alendronate can lead to esophageal irritation. Option D is incorrect because taking the medication before bedtime can cause esophageal irritation as well due to the risk of reflux when lying down.