A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker medication used to treat hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, and one common adverse effect is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly.
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A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. The practical nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring for hypokalemia is essential because it can cause various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the practical nurse should closely watch for signs and symptoms of low potassium levels in clients taking hydrochlorothiazide.
A practical nurse (PN) is reviewing teaching with the client and/or significant others about the concurrent use of benztropine and olanzapine to manage psychotic behavior. What information should the PN reinforce?
- A. Benztropine will reduce the olanzapine's side effect of urinary retention.
- B. Benztropine potentiates the effect of olanzapine.
- C. The benztropine is used to control the side effects of olanzapine.
- D. The combined effect of these drugs will modify psychotic behavior.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
What is the primary nursing intervention that the practical nurse should perform before administering ampicillin to a client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection?
- A. Obtain a clean-catch urine specimen.
- B. Assess the urine pH for acidity.
- C. Insert an indwelling catheter.
- D. Assess for complaints of dysuria.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most important nursing intervention before administering ampicillin to a client with a urinary tract infection is to obtain a clean-catch urine specimen. This specimen is crucial for determining the causative organism and evaluating the effectiveness of pharmacological therapy. It should be collected before starting treatment with an anti-infective agent to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of the infection.
A client taking long-term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed. The nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together?
- A. Ranitidine reduces the risk of ulcers associated with steroids.
- B. Ranitidine decreases the risk of infection associated with steroids.
- C. Ranitidine decreases blood sugar elevations associated with steroids.
- D. Ranitidine reduces sodium retention associated with steroid usage.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ranitidine is prescribed with long-term steroids to reduce the risk of ulcers associated with steroid therapy. Although steroids can increase the risk of ulcers due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system, ranitidine works by reducing stomach acid production, thus helping to prevent ulcer formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as ranitidine is not given to decrease the risk of infection, reduce blood sugar elevations, or reduce sodium retention associated with steroid usage.
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed hydroxychloroquine. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Avoid sunlight exposure while taking this medication.
- B. Take this medication with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
- C. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider.
- D. Report any signs of vision changes to the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.