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A client with hypothyroidism is started on levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take this medication every morning before breakfast.
- B. I should have my thyroid levels checked regularly.
- C. If I lose weight, I may need an increased dose.
- D. I can stop taking this medication once my symptoms improve.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
1. Levothyroxine is a lifelong medication for hypothyroidism.
2. Stopping medication prematurely can lead to symptom relapse.
3. Symptoms improving doesn't indicate the underlying condition is resolved.
4. Regular monitoring and dose adjustments are crucial.
5. Choice D shows misunderstanding of treatment duration and necessity.
Summary:
A: Correct, taking in the morning maximizes absorption.
B: Correct, monitoring is necessary for dose adjustments.
C: Correct, weight loss can affect thyroid hormone levels.
D: Incorrect, as stopping medication prematurely is not advised.
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Which client's laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse?
- A. A client with GI bleeding who is receiving a blood transfusion and has a hemoglobin of 7 grams.
- B. A client with pancreatitis who has a fasting glucose of 190 mg/dl today and had 160 mg/dl yesterday.
- C. A client with hepatitis who is jaundiced and has a bilirubin level that is 4 times the normal value.
- D. A client with cancer who has an absolute neutrophil count < 500 today and had 2,000 yesterday.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with an absolute neutrophil count < 500 is at high risk for serious infections due to severe neutropenia. Neutrophils are crucial for fighting infections, and a low count puts the client at immediate risk. Therefore, intervention is required to prevent life-threatening complications.
Choice A: A hemoglobin of 7 grams in a client with GI bleeding receiving a blood transfusion indicates anemia, but it does not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic.
Choice B: A fasting glucose of 190 mg/dl in a client with pancreatitis is elevated but does not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic or experiencing complications.
Choice C: A bilirubin level 4 times the normal value in a jaundiced client with hepatitis is concerning but does not require immediate intervention unless there are signs of severe liver dysfunction or complications.
The client is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril), and the nurse plans to educate them about its purpose. Which statement should the nurse provide?
- A. It will help you function better in the community.
- B. The medication will help you think more clearly.
- C. You will be able to cope with your symptoms.
- D. It will improve your grooming and hygiene.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "The medication will help you think more clearly." This is the most appropriate statement to educate the client about clozapine. Clozapine is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and helps with cognitive symptoms such as disorganized thinking. Choice A is too vague and doesn't specify the medication's intended effect. Choice C is too general and doesn't focus on cognitive improvement. Choice D is incorrect as clozapine does not specifically target grooming and hygiene but rather cognitive symptoms.
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) metoprolol (Lopressor) to a client. The client's apical pulse is 58 beats/minute. What action should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
- B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Give half the prescribed dose and recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
- D. Administer the medication and then recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. The rationale is that metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can further decrease heart rate. With a low apical pulse of 58 beats/minute, administering metoprolol can potentially cause bradycardia or further slow down the heart rate to dangerous levels. Holding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider allows for further assessment and potential adjustment of the dosage or consideration of alternative treatments.
Incorrect choices:
A: Administering the medication as prescribed can lead to bradycardia and potential harm to the client.
C: Giving half the prescribed dose and rechecking the pulse in 30 minutes can still lead to further bradycardia and potential harm.
D: Administering the medication and then rechecking the pulse in 30 minutes is not appropriate as the initial pulse rate is already low, and waiting to recheck could lead to adverse effects before intervention.
A client with schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Tardive dyskinesia.
- B. Orthostatic hypotension.
- C. Photosensitivity.
- D. Hyperglycemia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tardive dyskinesia. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic known to cause extrapyramidal side effects, including tardive dyskinesia, which is characterized by involuntary repetitive movements of the face and body. This side effect is a serious concern due to its potential to be irreversible. Monitoring for tardive dyskinesia is crucial in clients taking haloperidol to detect and manage symptoms promptly.
Explanation for incorrect choices:
B: Orthostatic hypotension - This side effect is more commonly associated with other antipsychotic medications, particularly second-generation ones.
C: Photosensitivity - Haloperidol does not typically cause photosensitivity as a side effect.
D: Hyperglycemia - While some antipsychotic medications may lead to metabolic side effects like hyperglycemia, haloperidol is not typically associated with this specific side effect.
A client from a nursing home is admitted with urinary sepsis and has a single-lumen, peripherally-inserted central catheter (PICC). Four medications are prescribed for 9:00 a.m. and the nurse is running behind schedule. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
- A. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours.
- B. Vancomycin (Vancocin) 1 gm in 250 ml D5W, IV over 90 minutes q12 hours.
- C. Pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg PO daily.
- D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subq q24 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours. In a patient with urinary sepsis, timely administration of antibiotics is crucial to prevent further complications. Piperacillin/tazobactam is a broad-spectrum antibiotic effective against a wide range of bacteria commonly involved in sepsis. Administering it first ensures prompt initiation of treatment. Other choices (B) Vancomycin, (C) Pantoprazole, and (D) Enoxaparin are important medications but are not as time-sensitive in this scenario. Vancomycin and Enoxaparin have longer administration times, and Pantoprazole is a maintenance medication that is not urgent in the acute management of sepsis.