A client with iron-deficiency anemia asks a nurse why the Z-track method is necessary for administering iron dextran. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. It decreases the risk of injecting medication into a blood vessel.
- B. It delays medication absorption.
- C. It minimizes tissue irritation.
- D. It accelerates medication excretion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Z-track method is used to minimize tissue irritation by sealing the medication in the muscle. This technique helps prevent leakage of the medication into subcutaneous tissue, reducing the risk of irritation and staining at the injection site. Option A about decreasing the risk of injecting medication into a blood vessel is not correct as the primary purpose of the Z-track method is to prevent tissue irritation. Option B stating it delays medication absorption is incorrect as the Z-track method does not affect the rate of medication absorption. Option D mentioning it accelerates medication excretion is incorrect as the Z-track method does not impact medication excretion but rather focuses on minimizing tissue irritation.
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During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?
- A. Atelectasis
- B. Renal calculi
- C. Pressure ulcers
- D. Joint contractures
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.
A client with amphetamine toxicity and sensory overload is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Immediately conduct a thorough assessment.
- B. Encourage visitors to distract the client.
- C. Provide a private room and limit stimulation.
- D. Speak softly to the client.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with amphetamine toxicity and sensory overload is to provide a private room and limit stimulation. This approach helps reduce external stimuli, which can exacerbate sensory overload, and creates a calming environment for the client. Encouraging visitors to distract the client may worsen sensory overload by adding more stimulation. Speaking softly, rather than at a higher volume, is more suitable to help maintain a calm environment. Therefore, the correct choice is to provide a private room and limit stimulation (option C) in this scenario.
A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?
- A. Contact
- B. Droplet
- C. Airborne
- D. Protective
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Droplet. Droplet precautions are required for infections that spread via droplets larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as pharyngeal diphtheria. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Airborne precautions are for diseases that spread through small particles in the air. Protective precautions are not a standard precautionary measure for specific infections like pharyngeal diphtheria.
The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?
- A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
- B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
- C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
- D. No special preparation is necessary
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
During a skin assessment, a healthcare professional is observing a group of clients. Which of the following lesions should the healthcare professional identify as vesicles?
- A. Acne
- B. Warts
- C. Psoriasis
- D. Herpes simplex
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vesicles are small fluid-filled blisters. Herpes simplex is an example of a vesicular lesion, characterized by small, fluid-filled blisters. Acne presents as comedones, papules, pustules, or nodules, not vesicles. Warts are caused by the human papillomavirus and appear as rough, raised growths. Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune condition that results in red, scaly patches on the skin, not vesicles.