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A client with lupus erythematosus is prescribed prednisone. What teaching should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
- B. Avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection.
- C. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
- D. Take extra calcium supplements to prevent osteoporosis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct teaching for a client with lupus erythematosus prescribed prednisone is to avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection. Prednisone suppresses the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Taking the medication with food may help reduce stomach upset but is not the priority teaching. Taking prednisone in the morning may help reduce insomnia, but infection prevention is more critical. While prednisone can lead to osteoporosis, advising extra calcium supplements is not the most immediate concern when starting the medication.
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A client with hypertension has been prescribed a calcium channel blocker. What should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Monitor heart rate regularly
- B. Avoid potassium-rich foods
- C. Increase fluid intake to avoid dehydration
- D. Take the medication with food
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Calcium channel blockers can cause bradycardia, so it is important for the client to monitor their heart rate regularly. This helps detect any significant changes in heart rate that may require medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because there is no need to avoid potassium-rich foods with calcium channel blockers. Choice C is incorrect as increasing fluid intake is not specifically related to calcium channel blockers. Choice D is incorrect as calcium channel blockers are usually taken with or without food, depending on the specific medication, but not specifically on an empty stomach.
What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?
- A. Decreased liver enzymes.
- B. Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation.
- C. High bilirubin levels.
- D. Fluid shifts due to decreased serum proteins.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.
A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
- B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
- C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
- D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.
A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy and has been prescribed a bowel preparation. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?
- A. Eat a low-fiber diet the day before the procedure
- B. Drink clear liquids 24 hours before the procedure
- C. Take the entire bowel preparation as directed
- D. Avoid all solid foods 12 hours before the procedure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to provide to a client scheduled for a colonoscopy and prescribed a bowel preparation is to take the entire bowel preparation as directed. Completing the entire bowel preparation as prescribed is crucial to ensure the colon is properly cleansed for the colonoscopy. Incomplete bowel prep can interfere with the visualization of the colon, leading to inaccurate results. Choices A, B, and D are important but not as crucial as ensuring the complete intake of the bowel preparation for an effective procedure.
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin therapy. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
- A. Monitor the client's liver function tests.
- B. Monitor the client's prothrombin time (PT).
- C. Monitor the client's partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
- D. Monitor the client's red blood cell count.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's partial thromboplastin time (PTT). During heparin therapy for DVT, it is essential to monitor the PTT to assess the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because liver function tests, prothrombin time (PT), and red blood cell count are not specifically monitored to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in preventing clot formation.