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A client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is receiving teaching on foot care. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Walk barefoot whenever possible to toughen your feet.
- B. Soak your feet in hot water daily to improve circulation.
- C. Trim your toenails straight across to prevent ingrown toenails.
- D. Use a heating pad to keep your feet warm.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Trim your toenails straight across to prevent ingrown toenails.
Rationale:
1. Trimming toenails straight across helps prevent ingrown nails.
2. Ingrown nails can lead to infection, especially risky for diabetics due to poor wound healing.
3. Walking barefoot toughens feet, increasing risk of injury.
4. Soaking in hot water can cause burns or skin damage.
5. Using a heating pad can lead to burns or decreased sensation in feet, increasing injury risk.
Summary:
Option C is correct as it directly addresses a common issue in diabetic foot care - ingrown toenails. Options A, B, and D pose risks of injury or damage to the feet, which is detrimental for diabetic individuals.
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A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Weight loss
- C. Hyperactivity
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperglycemia. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic medication known to cause metabolic side effects such as hyperglycemia. The nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of high blood sugar levels, such as increased thirst, frequent urination, and fatigue. Hypertension (choice A) is not a common side effect of risperidone. Weight loss (choice B) is less likely as risperidone is associated with weight gain. Hyperactivity (choice C) is not a typical side effect of risperidone. Therefore, monitoring for hyperglycemia is essential in clients taking risperidone.
An 85-year-old male resident of an extended care facility reaches for the hand of an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and tries to kiss her hand several times during his morning care. The UAP reports the incident to the charge nurse. What is the best assessment of the situation?
- A. This behavior can be considered sexual harassment and should be reported to the administration immediately.
- B. The UAP should be reassigned to another group of residents, preferably females only.
- C. The client may be suffering from touch deprivation and needs to know appropriate ways to express his need.
- D. The resident needs to understand the rules regarding unwanted touching of the staff and the consequences.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the behavior exhibited by the resident may stem from touch deprivation rather than being intentional sexual harassment. Here's a step-by-step rationale:
1. Understanding the resident's age and environment (extended care facility) helps in interpreting his behavior.
2. The resident's actions suggest a need for touch, which is common in older adults who may lack physical contact.
3. Educating the resident on appropriate ways to express his need for touch can address the underlying issue.
4. Reassigning the UAP or reporting the incident as sexual harassment (options A and B) may not address the root cause of the behavior and could potentially harm the resident's well-being.
In summary, choice C focuses on addressing the resident's potential touch deprivation in a compassionate and understanding manner, making it the best assessment of the situation.
A client with a history of chronic heart failure is experiencing severe shortness of breath and has pink, frothy sputum. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer morphine sulfate.
- B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
- C. Initiate continuous ECG monitoring.
- D. Prepare the client for intubation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to place the client in a high Fowler's position (Choice B). This position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation by reducing pressure on the diaphragm and improving ventilation. With severe shortness of breath and pink, frothy sputum, the priority is to optimize respiratory function. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) may be indicated later for pain and anxiety but is not the immediate priority. Initiating continuous ECG monitoring (Choice C) is important but not as urgent as addressing the respiratory distress. Preparing the client for intubation (Choice D) should be considered if respiratory distress worsens, but initial interventions should focus on improving oxygenation through positioning.
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Platelet count
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. International normalized ratio (INR)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy by assessing the clotting time. In patients with DVT receiving heparin, the goal is to keep the aPTT within a therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the dose of heparin is appropriate.
Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but does not directly assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy for DVT.
A client who has been receiving treatment for depression with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) reports experiencing decreased libido. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Decreased libido is a common side effect of SSRIs and may improve over time.
- B. I will notify your healthcare provider to discuss possible medication changes.
- C. You should take your medication with food to reduce side effects.
- D. Increase your daily exercise to help manage this side effect.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is B: I will notify your healthcare provider to discuss possible medication changes. This is the best choice because decreased libido is a common side effect of SSRIs that can significantly impact the client's quality of life. Consulting the healthcare provider is crucial to explore alternative treatment options or adjustments to improve the client's symptoms. Choices A, C, and D do not address the underlying issue of decreased libido and are unlikely to provide effective solutions. Choice A only acknowledges the side effect without offering a proactive solution. Choice C is unrelated to the sexual side effect and may not address the client's concerns. Choice D suggests a general lifestyle change that may not directly address the medication side effect. Consulting the healthcare provider for medication adjustments is the most appropriate action to address this specific side effect.