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A client with panic disorder is experiencing a panic attack. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Encourage the client to breathe slowly and deeply.
- B. Ask the client to describe the sensations they are experiencing.
- C. Encourage the client to focus on a calming image.
- D. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Encouraging slow, deep breathing is the priority intervention during a panic attack as it can help reduce the physiological symptoms and assist the client in regaining control. This technique can help decrease hyperventilation and promote relaxation. Choice B, asking the client to describe sensations, may be beneficial after the panic attack has subsided to gain insight into triggers or manifestations. Choice C, encouraging the client to focus on a calming image, can be helpful in managing anxiety but may not be as effective during the acute phase of a panic attack. Choice D, administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan), should only be considered if the client does not respond to initial non-pharmacological interventions or if the symptoms are severe and unmanageable.
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A 65-year-old female client complains to the nurse that recently she has been hearing voices. What question should the nurse ask this client first?
- A. Do you have problems with hallucinations?
- B. Are you ever alone when you hear the voices?
- C. Has anyone in your family had hearing problems?
- D. Do you see things that others cannot see?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should first ask if the client is ever alone when she hears the voices. This question helps differentiate between potential auditory hallucinations and other causes like hearing loss. Choice A is not the best first question as it assumes the client is experiencing hallucinations without exploring other possibilities. Choice C is irrelevant to the immediate concern of hearing voices. Choice D pertains to visual hallucinations which are not described in the client's complaint of hearing voices.
A client is preparing to attend a Gamblers Anonymous meeting for the first time. The prototype used by this group is the 12-step program developed by Alcoholics Anonymous. Number in order of priority how the steps would be addressed.
- A. Admitting to oneself and to another human being the exact nature of one's wrongs
- B. Acknowledging that one is entirely ready to have his or her defects of character removed
- C. Admitting that oneself is powerless over gambling and that one's life has become unmanageable
- D. Making an effort to practice the 12-step principles in all affairs, and to carry out this message to other compulsive gamblers
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct order of addressing the 12-step program typically begins with admitting powerlessness over the addiction and recognizing the unmanageability of one's life (Choice C). Following this, individuals move towards acknowledging their wrongs and sharing them with others (Choice A), then being ready to work on changing their character defects (Choice B), and finally, integrating the 12-step principles into their daily lives and helping others (Choice D). Choices A, B, and C are important steps in the program but come after admitting powerlessness and unmanageability, which is why Choice D is the correct answer.
A male client is brought to the emergency department by a police officer, who reports the client was disturbing the peace by running naked in the street, striking out at others, and smashing car windows. Which behaviors should the client demonstrate to determine if he should be evaluated for involuntary commitment?
- A. Threats to kill his friend.
- B. Disruptive behaviors in a community setting.
- C. Hears voices telling him to kill himself.
- D. Reports he has not needed a bath in 4 months.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's dangerous and disruptive behaviors, along with auditory hallucinations of self-harm, suggest a need for involuntary commitment for his safety and that of others. Involuntary commitment may be warranted based on the client's poor hygiene and self-neglect, as it indicates an inability to care for himself, which can pose a risk to his well-being.
A client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine (Zyprexa). What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Weight gain
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Tachycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is known to cause significant weight gain in patients. This side effect is crucial to monitor because it can lead to metabolic syndrome, diabetes, and cardiovascular issues. Monitoring the client's weight regularly and providing appropriate dietary guidance is essential. Hypotension (choice A), dry mouth (choice C), and tachycardia (choice D) are not commonly associated with olanzapine use and are not the primary side effects to monitor in this case.
The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?
- A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
- C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
- D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.