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A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed sucralfate. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
- A. Neutralizes stomach acid
- B. Decreases gastric acid secretion
- C. Covers the ulcer site and protects it from acid
- D. Improves gastric motility
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Covers the ulcer site and protects it from acid. Sucralfate works by forming a protective barrier over ulcers, shielding them from stomach acid and promoting healing. Choice A, neutralizing stomach acid, is incorrect as sucralfate does not neutralize acid but acts as a physical barrier. Choice B, decreasing gastric acid secretion, is not the mechanism of action of sucralfate. Choice D, improving gastric motility, is unrelated to sucralfate's action on peptic ulcers.
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A client with Addison's disease started taking hydrocortisone in a divided daily dose last week. It is most important for the nurse to monitor which serum laboratory value?
- A. Osmolarity
- B. Glucose
- C. Albumin
- D. Platelets
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glucose. Hydrocortisone can lead to increased blood glucose levels, so monitoring glucose is crucial to assess for hyperglycemia, a common side effect of corticosteroid therapy. Monitoring osmolarity (choice A) is not typically indicated in this scenario. Albumin (choice C) and platelets (choice D) are not directly affected by hydrocortisone therapy and are not the primary focus of monitoring in this case.
What is the hallmark sign of intussusception?
- A. Mucus-like stools
- B. Currant jelly-like stools
- C. Tarry, black stools
- D. Green, soft stools
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The hallmark sign of intussusception is currant jelly-like stools, which result from the mixture of blood and mucus in the stool due to the sloughing of intestinal mucosa. Mucus-like stools (Choice A) are not typically associated with intussusception. Tarry, black stools (Choice C) are characteristic of gastrointestinal bleeding higher up in the gastrointestinal tract, such as from a peptic ulcer. Green, soft stools (Choice D) are more indicative of rapid transit through the intestines, possibly due to dietary factors or infections such as gastroenteritis.
A 2-year-old child with laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) is fussy and restless in the oxygen tent. The oxygen level in the tent is 25%, and blood gases are normal. What would be the correct action by the nurse?
- A. Restrain the child in the tent and notify the health care provider.
- B. Increase the oxygen concentration in the tent.
- C. Take the child out of the tent and into the playroom.
- D. Ask the mother for help in comforting the child.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The child with LTB should be placed in the mist tent with 30% oxygen. Restlessness is caused by poor oxygenation. The child should not be taken out of the oxygenated tent. While the mother could be asked to help comfort the child, and the health care provider may be notified, the priority is to set the oxygen at the correct level.
While assisting a female client to the toilet, the client begins to have a seizure, and the nurse eases her to the floor. The nurse calls for help and monitors the client until the seizing stops. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Document details of the seizure activity.
- B. Observe for lacerations on the tongue.
- C. Observe for prolonged periods of apnea.
- D. Evaluate for evidence of incontinence.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Documenting details of the seizure activity is the priority intervention as it is crucial for medical records and future care planning. This documentation can provide vital information for healthcare providers in understanding the type, duration, and characteristics of the seizure. Observing for lacerations on the tongue, prolonged periods of apnea, or evidence of incontinence are important assessments, but they come after documenting the seizure activity.
While walking to the mailbox, an older adult male experiences sudden chest tightness and drives himself to the emergency department. When the client gets up to the desk of the triage nurse, he says his heart is pounding out of his chest as he clutches his chest and falls to the floor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Prepare for cardiac defibrillation.
- B. Apply cardiac monitor leads.
- C. Obtain troponin serum levels.
- D. Palpate the client's artery.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Palpating the client's artery is the priority intervention in this scenario because it helps determine if there is a pulse, which is crucial information in emergency situations like this. If the client is pulseless, immediate initiation of CPR is necessary. Applying cardiac monitor leads or obtaining troponin serum levels can wait until the presence of a pulse is confirmed. Cardiac defibrillation is not indicated without first assessing the client's pulse and cardiac rhythm.