Nokea
A client with pneumonia has arterial blood gases levels at: pH 7.33; PaCO2 49 mm/Hg; HCO3 25 mEq/L; PaO2 95. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these results?
- A. Institute coughing and deep breathing protocols.
- B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation.
- D. Increase IV fluids to improve hydration.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The ABG results indicate respiratory acidosis due to an elevated PaCO2 (49 mm/Hg), indicating hypoventilation. The appropriate intervention for respiratory acidosis is to improve ventilation. Coughing and deep breathing protocols can help the client to effectively ventilate and improve gas exchange. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice B) may be necessary in respiratory distress situations, but addressing the underlying cause of hypoventilation is crucial. Intubation and mechanical ventilation (Choice C) are not the first-line interventions for uncomplicated respiratory acidosis. Increasing IV fluids (Choice D) does not directly address the respiratory acidosis present in this scenario.
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A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before the procedure?
- A. Serum creatinine
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- C. Serum potassium
- D. Serum glucose
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Before a CT scan with contrast, the nurse should review the serum creatinine level. This is crucial in patients with CKD because contrast agents can potentially worsen kidney function and lead to contrast-induced nephropathy. Monitoring serum creatinine helps assess kidney function and determine the risk of complications. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is another marker of kidney function, but serum creatinine is a more specific indicator. Serum potassium levels are important in assessing electrolyte balance but are not directly related to the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy. Serum glucose levels are not typically a primary concern before a CT scan with contrast in a patient with CKD.
A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
- C. Administer intravenous morphine as prescribed.
- D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, which is crucial in managing respiratory distress. Loop diuretics (Choice B) may be indicated to manage fluid overload in heart failure but are not the immediate priority in this case. Administering morphine (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for shortness of breath in heart failure and should be considered after addressing oxygenation and underlying causes. Obtaining an arterial blood gas sample (Choice D) can provide valuable information but is not the initial action needed to address the client's acute respiratory distress.
A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
- B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
- C. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
- D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A prothrombin time of 18 seconds is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy as it indicates impaired liver function and an increased risk of bleeding. This requires immediate intervention to prevent bleeding complications. Choice A, serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl, is elevated but not as urgent as the abnormal prothrombin time. Choice B, bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl, is elevated but does not directly indicate an urgent need for intervention in this situation. Choice C, serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.
When preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube for a client admitted to the surgical unit with symptoms of a possible intestinal obstruction, which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees
- B. Administer an antiemetic
- C. Prepare the client for surgery
- D. Provide oral care
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 60 to 90 degrees is essential when inserting an NG tube. This position helps facilitate the passage of the tube through the esophagus into the stomach and reduces the risk of aspiration. Administering an antiemetic may be necessary to control nausea or vomiting, but it is not the primary intervention when inserting an NG tube. Preparing the client for surgery is not indicated solely for the insertion of an NG tube. Providing oral care is important for maintaining oral hygiene but is not directly related to inserting an NG tube.
A client with a tracheostomy has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids.
- B. Perform deep suctioning every 2 to 4 hours.
- C. Increase humidity in the client's room.
- D. Administer a mucolytic agent.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Increasing humidity in the client's room can help liquefy thick secretions and facilitate easier airway clearance in a client with a tracheostomy. Encouraging the client to drink plenty of fluids can be beneficial for overall hydration but may not directly address thick secretions. Deep suctioning every 2 to 4 hours can be harmful and cause trauma to the airway lining. Administering a mucolytic agent should be done under the healthcare provider's order and may not be the initial intervention for thick secretions.