Nokea
A client with pulmonary tuberculosis has been taking rifampin for 3 weeks. The client reports orange urine. What should be the nurse's next action?
- A. Notify the client's health care provider.
- B. Inform the client that this is not harmful.
- C. Assess the client for other signs of nephrotoxicity.
- D. Monitor the client's most recent creatinine level.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client reports orange urine after taking rifampin is to inform the client that this change is not harmful. Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of urine, which is a harmless side effect. There is no need to notify the health care provider as this is an expected outcome. Monitoring creatinine levels or assessing for nephrotoxicity is unnecessary in this situation, as rifampin does not typically cause kidney damage.
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The practical nurse administered carbidopa-levodopa to a client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Which outcome by the client would indicate a therapeutic response?
- A. Decreased blood pressure
- B. Lessening of tremors
- C. Increased salivation
- D. Increased attention span
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Nausea
- D. Vomiting
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation, can lead to toxicity manifesting as various cardiac dysrhythmias, with bradycardia being a notable indicator. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial as it can indicate the need for dosage adjustment or discontinuation of digoxin to prevent adverse effects.
A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin glargine. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?
- A. Before meals
- B. After meals
- C. At bedtime
- D. In the morning
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
In the immediate postoperative period, a client is prescribed morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which finding should the PN consider the highest priority in this client?
- A. Monitoring the expiration date of the PCA morphine
- B. Assessing the rate and depth of the client's respirations
- C. Reviewing the type of anesthesia used during the surgery
- D. Observing the client's signs of disorientation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The highest priority for the PN is to assess the rate and depth of the client's respirations when a client is receiving morphine via a PCA pump. Respiratory depression is a life-threatening side effect of intravenous morphine administration. If the client's respiratory rate falls below 10 breaths/min, the PCA pump should be stopped, and the healthcare provider must be notified immediately to prevent further complications.
A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed citalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Insomnia
- D. Headache
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential side effect of citalopram is nausea. Citalopram can cause gastrointestinal disturbances such as nausea, so clients should be advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs to help minimize this side effect. While other side effects like drowsiness, insomnia, and headache may also occur with citalopram, nausea is a common side effect that clients should be informed about.