A client with sickle cell disease informs the nurse that he is having chest pain. The nurse hears the client coughing, wheezing, and breathing rapidly. What does the nurse suspect is occurring with this client?
- A. Vaso-occlusive crisis
- B. Pneumocystis pneumonia
- C. Acute chest syndrome
- D. Acute muscular strain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: One of the unique manifestations of sickle cell disease is 'acute chest syndrome,' a type of pneumonia triggered by decreased hemoglobin and infiltrates in the lungs. Acute chest syndrome is characterized by respiratory symptoms, such as coughing, wheezing, tachypnea, and chest pain. Vaso-occlusive crisis causes decrease in tissue perfusion and predisposes the client to pneumonia but is not the present problem with this client. Pneumocystis pneumonia is present in the client with HIV/AIDS or other immunocompromised clients. The client's symptoms do not correlate with a diagnosis of acute muscular strain.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is caring for four clients on the medical-surgical unit of the hospital. What client is mostly likely to be receiving treatment for sickle cell crisis?
- A. A 29-year-old Caucasian male
- B. A 19-year-old male of African descent
- C. A 24-year-old Native American/First Nations female
- D. A 36-year-old Eastern European female
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sickle cell disease is a common genetic disorder found primarily in clients of African descent but also in people from Mediterranean and Middle Eastern countries. It is unlikely that a Caucasian male, Native American/First Nations female, or eastern European female will be affected by this disease.
The nurse is instructing the client with sickle cell disease about the use of an inhaled vasodilator that may reduce sickling. What medication is the nurse instructing the client about?
- A. Nitszyst oxide
- B. Nitric oxide
- C. Betamethasone
- D. Terbutaline
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Inhaled nitric oxide-not nitrous oxide (laughing gas), a vasodilating agent- is believed to reduce sickling by promoting the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin. It is being used in the form of handheld inhalers to abort or relieve pain experienced during sickle cell crises. Betamethasone is a corticosteroid, and terbutaline is not used as an inhaler.
A client who is diagnosed multiple myeloma experiences decreased production of red blood cells (RBCs). Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer to increase the production of erythrocytes?
- A. Filgrastim
- B. Pegfilgrastim
- C. Erythropoietin
- D. Dexamethasone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The medication erythropoietin can be used to stimulate the production of red blood cells; therefore, this is the prescribed medication that the nurse prepares to administer to the client. Filgrastim and pegfilgrastim promote proliferation of neutrophils, not erythrocytes. Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid that is prescribed for clients who are diagnosed with multiple myeloma to inhibit the inflammatory immune response.
The nurse observes the laboratory studies for a client in the hospital with fatigue, feeling cold all of the time, and hemoglobin of 8.6 g/dL and a hematocrit of 28%. What finding would be an indicator of iron-deficiency anemia?
- A. Erythrocytes that are microcytic and hypochromic
- B. Erythrocytes that are macrocytic and hyperchromic
- C. Clustering of platelets with sickled red blood cells
- D. An increased number of erythrocytes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A blood smear reveals erythrocytes that are microcytic (smaller than normal) and hypochromic (lighter in color than normal). It does not reveal macrocytic (larger than normal) or hyperchromic erythrocytes. Clustering of platelets with sickled red blood cells would indicate sickle cell anemia. An increase in the number of erythrocytes would indicate polycythemia vera.
Parents arrive to the clinic with their young child and inform the nurse the child has just been diagnosed with sickle cell disease. The parents ask the nurse how this could have happened and which one of them is the carrier. What is the correct response by the nurse?
- A. Most likely, the father is the carrier of the gene.
- B. The trait is passed down through the mother.
- C. The child must inherit two defective genes, one from each parent.
- D. It is an acquired, not a hereditary disorder.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sickle cell disease is a hereditary disorder. To manifest this disorder, a person must inherit two defective genes, one from each parent, in which case all the hemoglobin is inherently abnormal. If the person inherits only one gene, that person carries the sickle cell trait. The hemoglobin of those who have sickle cell trait is about 40% affected. The other options are incorrect due to these factors.
Nokea