Nokea
A client with suspected exposure to HIV has been tested with the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) with positive results twice. The next step for the nurse to explain to the client for confirmation of the diagnosis is to perform what?
- A. p24 antigen test for confirmation of diagnosis.
- B. Western blot test for confirmation of diagnosis.
- C. polymerase chain reaction test for confirmation of diagnosis.
- D. T4-cell count for confirmation of diagnosis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test, an initial HIV screening test, is positive when there are sufficient HIV antibodies; it also is positive when there are antibodies from other infectious diseases. The test is repeated if results are positive. If results of a second ELISA test are positive, the Western blot is performed. The p24 antigen test and the polymerase chain reaction test determine the viral load, and the T4-cell count is not used for diagnostic confirmation of the presence of HIV in the blood.
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A nurse is collecting objective data for a client with AIDS. The nurse observes white plaques in the client's oral cavity, on the tongue, and buccal mucosa. What does this finding indicate?
- A. Kaposi's sarcoma
- B. Candidiasis
- C. Hairy leukoplakia
- D. Coccidioidomycosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Candidiasis is a yeast infection caused by the Candida albicans microorganisms Serie A. It may develop in the oral, pharyngeal, esophageal, or vaginal cavities or in folds of the skin. It is often called thrush when located in the mouth. Inspection of the mouth, throat, or vagina reveals areas of white plaque that may bleed when mobilized with a cotton-tipped swab. Kaposi's sarcoma is a purple lesion and is an opportunistic cancer. Hairy leukoplakia is also an indication of oral cancer. Coccidioidomycosis causes diarrhea in the immunosuppressed client.
The nurse is gathering data from laboratory studies for a client who has HIV. The client's T4-cell count is 200/mm3, and the client has been diagnosed with Pneumocystis pneumonia. What does this indicate to the nurse?
- A. The client has converted from HIV infection to AIDS.
- B. The client has advanced HIV infection.
- C. The client's T4-cell count has decreased due to the Pneumocystis pneumonia.
- D. The client has another infection present that is causing a decrease in the T4-cell count.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: AIDS is the end stage of HIV infection. Certain events establish the conversion of HIV infection to AIDS: a markedly decreased T4 cell count from a normal level of 800 to 1200/mm3 and the development of certain cancers and opportunistic infections. The client does not have advanced HIV; they meet the criteria for the development of AIDS. The T4-cell count is not decreasing due to an infection.
What does the nurse understand is the goal of antiretroviral therapy?
- A. Reverse the HIV+ status to a negative status.
- B. Treat mycobacterium avium complex.
- C. Eliminate the risk of AIDS.
- D. Bring the viral load to a virtually undetectable level.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The goal of antiretroviral therapy is to bring the viral load to a virtually undetectable level. This level is no more than 500 or 50 copies, depending on the sensitivity of the selected viral load test. It is not possible to reverse the status to a negative, and it cannot eliminate the risk of AIDS but can help with prolonging the asymptomatic stage of HIV. Antiretroviral therapy does not treat mycobacterium avium complex.
A client on antiretroviral drug therapy informs the nurse about sometimes forgetting to take the medication for a few days. What should the nurse inform the client can occur when the medications are not taken as prescribed?
- A. The funding for the medications will cease if the client is not taking the meds correctly.
- B. The client is risking the development of drug resistance and drug failure.
- C. The client will have to take the drugs intravenously to ensure compliance.
- D. The client will have to take higher doses of the antiviral medications.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clients who neglect to take antiretroviral drugs as prescribed risk development of drug resistance. When drug levels are not adequately maintained, viral replication and mutations increase. Funding will not cease for noncompliance. The medications are not all available in IV form. Taking a higher dose of the medication if missed does not resolve drug resistance.
A client with cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection reports difficulty seeing. The physician determines that the client is developing CMV retinitis. What medication does the nurse anticipate the client will receive for this?
- A. zidovudine
- B. fluconazole
- C. azithromycin
- D. foscarnet
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The drug foscarnet is used to treat CMV retinitis. Alterations in renal function, nausea, anemia, headaches, seizures, and diarrhea are the most common adverse effects. Zidovudine is used in antiretroviral therapy to prevent the conversion of HIV to AIDS. Azithromycin is an antibiotic and not used to treat CMV retinitis.