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A client with type 1 DM is taught to take NPH and regular insulin every morning. The nurse should provide which instructions to the client?
- A. Take the NPH insulin first, then the regular insulin.
- B. Take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin.
- C. It does not matter which insulin is drawn up first.
- D. Contact the healthcare provider if the order for insulin is unclear.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin. Regular insulin should be drawn up before NPH insulin to prevent contamination of the regular insulin vial with the longer-acting insulin. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests taking the NPH insulin first, which is not the recommended practice. Choice C is incorrect because the order of drawing up insulin does matter to prevent contamination. Choice D is not the most appropriate action in this scenario, as the nurse should provide clear instructions to the client based on best practices.
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A client with hypoparathyroidism is at risk for which of the following complications?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypoparathyroidism is characterized by decreased levels of parathyroid hormone, leading to reduced calcium levels in the blood, which results in hypocalcemia. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypoparathyroidism does not typically lead to hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypernatremia. Hypercalcemia is more commonly associated with hyperparathyroidism, where there is excess secretion of parathyroid hormone.
Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?
- A. Oral anticoagulants
- B. Anabolic steroids
- C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
- D. Thiazide diuretics
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.
Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?
- A. Tetanic contractions
- B. Neck vein distention
- C. Weight loss
- D. Polyuria
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.
A client at risk for hypokalemia is being instructed by a nurse about foods high in potassium that should be included in the daily diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the food sources of potassium if the client states that the food item lowest in potassium is:
- A. Apples
- B. Carrots
- C. Spinach
- D. Avocado
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Apples.' Apples are the lowest in potassium among the given options. Carrots, spinach, and avocados are all higher in potassium content compared to apples. Carrots and spinach are vegetables known to have a moderate amount of potassium. Avocados, on the other hand, are a high-potassium fruit and would not be the lowest in potassium among the choices provided.
A client with Graves' disease is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that the purpose of this medication is to:
- A. Treat the underlying cause of the disease
- B. Reduce thyroid hormone production
- C. Alleviate symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors
- D. Increase energy levels
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Alleviate symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that helps manage symptoms like tachycardia (fast heart rate) and tremors in patients with Graves' disease. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol does not address the underlying cause of Graves' disease, which is autoimmune in nature. Choice B is incorrect because propranolol does not directly reduce thyroid hormone production; it mainly targets the symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while propranolol may help with symptoms like tachycardia, it is not intended to increase energy levels.