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A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for antibiotic treatment of a leg ulcer. Which signs and symptoms, indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? (Select one that doesn't apply.)
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Visual disturbances
- C. Presence of uremic frost
- D. Decreased mentation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Presence of uremic frost. HHNS is characterized by severe hyperglycemia leading to osmotic diuresis and dehydration, not uremia. A: Increased heart rate is a non-specific sign of stress. B: Visual disturbances can be seen in diabetic retinopathy but are not specific to HHNS. D: Decreased mentation is common in HHNS due to severe dehydration and hyperglycemia leading to altered mental status.
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A postoperative client returns to the nursing unit following a ureter lithotomy via a flank incision. Which potential nursing problem has the highest priority when planning nursing care for this client?
- A. Ineffective airway clearance
- B. Altered nutrition less than body requirements
- C. Fluid volume excess
- D. Activity intolerance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ineffective airway clearance. After a ureter lithotomy, the client may be at risk for respiratory complications due to anesthesia, pain, and immobility. Ineffective airway clearance can lead to hypoxia and respiratory distress, making it the highest priority. Altered nutrition, fluid volume excess, and activity intolerance are important but are secondary to the immediate threat of compromised airway and breathing in the postoperative period. Therefore, addressing airway clearance first is crucial to ensure optimal client outcomes.
A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination
- B. Notify the parents that the client needs to be picked up from school
- C. Determine the date of the client's last menstrual period
- D. Ask the client to lie down for a pelvic examination
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is the first action the nurse should take because the client is experiencing abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea, which could indicate a gynecological issue. A pelvic examination by a healthcare provider is necessary to assess for any potential reproductive system problems, such as ovarian cysts, endometriosis, or pelvic inflammatory disease. This examination will provide valuable information to diagnose and treat the underlying cause of the client's symptoms.
Choice B is incorrect because notifying the parents to pick up the client does not address the primary concern of evaluating the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. Choice C is also incorrect as determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, while important, does not take precedence over a thorough pelvic examination. Choice D is incorrect as asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination should only be done by a healthcare provider in a proper clinical setting, not in a school clinic.
The nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Verify the client's blood type
- B. Ensure the PRBCs are warm
- C. Check the client's vital signs
- D. Obtain the client's consent
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Verify the client's blood type. This is crucial before administering PRBCs to prevent a potentially life-threatening transfusion reaction. Step 1: Check the blood type on the PRBCs label. Step 2: Verify the client's blood type against the label. Steps 3: Crossmatch the blood to ensure compatibility. Checking vital signs (C) is important but not the priority. Ensuring PRBCs are warm (B) is not necessary. Obtaining consent (D) is important but verifying blood type takes precedence to ensure safe transfusion.
The nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days post-op following abdominal surgery. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound
- B. Notify the healthcare provider
- C. Administer pain medication
- D. Cover the wound with an abdominal binder
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound. This is because the client is experiencing evisceration, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate attention to prevent infection and further complications. By applying a sterile saline dressing, the nurse can protect the exposed bowel from contamination, maintain moisture, and promote healing. This action helps to reduce the risk of infection and provides a temporary barrier until further interventions can be implemented.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to protect the exposed bowel is the priority.
C: Administering pain medication does not address the primary concern of protecting the exposed bowel.
D: Covering the wound with an abdominal binder does not provide the necessary protection and could potentially exacerbate the situation by applying pressure to the protruding bowel.
An angry client screams at the emergency department triage nurse, 'I've been waiting here for two hours! You and the staff are incompetent.' What is the best response for the nurse to make?
- A. The emergency department is very busy at this time.
- B. I'll let you see the doctor next because you've waited so long.
- C. I'm doing the best I can for the sickest clients first.
- D. I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it demonstrates empathy and acknowledges the client's feelings without admitting fault. By saying "I understand you are frustrated with the wait time," the nurse validates the client's emotions and shows a willingness to listen and address concerns. This response can help de-escalate the situation and build rapport.
Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't directly address the client's emotions. Choice B is incorrect as it prioritizes the client based on their anger rather than medical need. Choice C is incorrect as it may come off as dismissive of the client's feelings and lacks empathy.