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A client with ulcerative colitis has been prescribed sulfasalazine. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Constipation
- C. Oral candidiasis
- D. Sedation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can cause liver damage as a possible adverse effect, which can manifest as jaundice. Monitoring for jaundice is crucial to detect liver-related adverse effects early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not typically associated with sulfasalazine use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client specifically about monitoring for jaundice.
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A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a prescription for zolpidem at bedtime to promote sleep. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Ecchymosis
- B. Decreased urine output
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Dizziness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dizziness. Zolpidem is known to cause dizziness, especially in older adults. This adverse effect can increase the risk of falls and injuries in the elderly population. Monitoring for dizziness is crucial to ensure patient safety. Choice A, Ecchymosis, is the development of bruising and is not a common adverse effect of zolpidem. Choices B and C, Decreased urine output and Increased blood pressure, are not typically associated with zolpidem use. Therefore, they are incorrect choices in this scenario.
A nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin 250 mg liquid suspension PO every 8 hr to an older adult client. The amount available is amoxicillin 50 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number)
- A. 5 mL
- B. 6 mL
- C. 4 mL
- D. 7 mL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the amount of amoxicillin in mL needed per dose, we can use the formula: 50 mg/mL = 250 mg / X mL. Cross multiply to solve for X: 50X = 250. Divide both sides by 50 to find X, which equals 5 mL per dose. Therefore, the nurse should administer 5 mL of amoxicillin per dose. Choice B, 6 mL, is incorrect as it does not match the calculated result. Choice C, 4 mL, is incorrect as it is too low based on the calculation. Choice D, 7 mL, is incorrect as it is too high based on the calculation.
A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral tube feeding through an NG tube at 250 mL over 4 hr. The nurse should set the pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number)
- A. 63 mL/hr
- B. 36 mL/hr
- C. 78 mL/hr
- D. 90 mL/hr
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the rate for the enteral tube feeding, divide the total volume by the total time: 250 mL / 4 hr = 62.5 ≈ 63 mL/hr. Therefore, the nurse should set the pump to deliver 63 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation result. B is too low, C is too high, and D is also too high based on the correct calculation.
A nurse is providing teaching to a group of new parents about medications. The nurse should include that aspirin is contraindicated for children who have a viral infection due to the risk of developing which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Reye's syndrome
- B. Visual disturbances
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Wilms' tumor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reye's syndrome. Aspirin use in children with viral infections has been associated with Reye's syndrome, a serious condition that causes swelling in the liver and brain. Visual disturbances (choice B) are not typically associated with aspirin use in children with viral infections. Diabetes mellitus (choice C) and Wilms' tumor (choice D) are not adverse effects of aspirin use in this context.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion and has an aPTT of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take?
- A. Administer vitamin K
- B. Reduce the infusion rate
- C. Give the client a low-dose aspirin
- D. Request an INR
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The appropriate action is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin to prevent further complications. Administering vitamin K is not indicated for an elevated aPTT due to heparin therapy. Giving the client a low-dose aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding when combined with heparin. Requesting an INR is not necessary for monitoring heparin therapy; aPTT is the more specific test for assessing heparin's therapeutic effect. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to prepare to take is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin.