Nokea
A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?
- A. renal failure
- B. psoriasis
- C. lupus
- D. cirrhosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse notes that a healthcare provider has documented the following prescription in a client's record: Furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg stat once. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administering the medication
- B. Drawing up the medication in a syringe
- C. Planning to have the nurse on the next shift administer the medication
- D. Contacting the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to contact the healthcare provider. The prescription provided lacks crucial information such as the route of administration. Before administering any medication, the nurse must clarify any missing details with the provider, especially for a stat prescription that requires immediate administration. Drawing up or administering the medication without verifying the route of administration is unsafe and can lead to errors. Planning for the next shift nurse to administer the medication is not appropriate in this scenario as the stat order necessitates immediate action. Therefore, the best course of action is to contact the healthcare provider to obtain clarification on the prescription.
The nurse and a colleague are on the elevator after their shift, and they hear a group of healthcare providers discussing a recent client scenario. Which client right might be breached?
- A. right to refuse treatment
- B. right to continuity of care
- C. right to confidentiality
- D. right to reasonable responses to requests
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The right to confidentiality of client information might be breached when client care situations are discussed in public areas or without regard to maintaining the information as private and confidential. In this scenario, the conversation on the elevator could lead to a breach of the client's right to confidentiality. The other options, such as the right to refuse treatment, right to continuity of care, and right to reasonable responses to requests, are not being breached in this instance, making them incorrect choices.
A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for all of the following except:
- A. identifying risks.
- B. controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims.
- C. ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions.
- D. analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for identifying risks, controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims, and analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs. It is not responsible for ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions. Monitoring staff adherence to their job descriptions falls under the purview of departmental managers or supervisors. The primary focus of a risk management program is to assess, mitigate, and manage risks related to patient safety, quality of care, and financial implications, rather than overseeing staff job descriptions.
Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:
- A. Primary prevention.
- B. Secondary prevention.
- C. Tertiary prevention.
- D. Disability prevention.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.
When providing perineal care to a female client, how should the nurse perform the procedure?
- A. with gloves, washing the perineal area from front to back
- B. without gloves, having the client perform all care
- C. with gloves, washing the perineal area from back to front
- D. without gloves, pouring water from a sterile bottle
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When providing perineal care to a female client, the nurse should wear gloves and wash the perineal area from front to back. This technique helps prevent the introduction of E. coli and other bacteria into the urethra, reducing the risk of urinary tract infections. Washing from back to front can introduce bacteria from the anal area to the urethra, leading to infections. Performing the procedure without gloves or having the client perform all care does not adhere to infection control practices. Pouring water from a sterile bottle alone may not ensure proper cleansing and infection prevention. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow proper perineal care guidelines.