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A client's amniocentesis results are reported as 45, X. How should the nurse interpret these findings?
- A. The fetus is nonviable.
- B. The fetus is a normal female.
- C. The baby will be a hermaphrodite.
- D. The girl will be short and sterile.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The karyotype 45, X indicates Turner syndrome, which is associated with short stature and infertility.
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It is noted that a baby admitted to the nursery has translucent skin with visible veins. Because of this finding, the nurse should monitor this baby carefully for which of the following?
- A. Polycythemia.
- B. Hypothermia.
- C. Hyperglycemia.
- D. Polyuria.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Translucent skin with visible veins is common in preterm infants, who are at higher risk for hypothermia due to poor thermoregulation.
A nurse is working in a health care organization that has achieved Magnet status. Which components are indicators of this status? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Empirical quality results
- B. Structural empowerment
- C. Transformational leadership
- D. Exemplary professional practice
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) established the Magnet Recognition Program to recognize health care organizations that achieve excellence in nursing practice. The five components are Transformational Leadership; Structural Empowerment; Exemplary Professional Practice; New Knowledge, Innovation, and Improvements; and Empirical Quality Results.
A 42-week-gestation neonate is being assessed. Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to see?
- A. Folded and flat pinnae.
- B. Smooth plantar surfaces.
- C. Loose and peeling skin.
- D. Short pliable fingernails.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Post-term neonates often have loose and peeling skin due to prolonged exposure to amniotic fluid.
A patient, gravida 2, para 1, comes for a prenatal visit at 20 weeks of gestation. Her fundus is palpated 3 cm below the umbilicus. This finding is
- A. appropriate for gestational age.
- B. a sign of impending complications.
- C. lower than normal for gestational age.
- D. higher than normal for gestational age.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The fundal height at 20 weeks gestation should be at the level of the umbilicus. When it is palpated 3 cm below the umbilicus, it is considered lower than normal for gestational age. This finding suggests possible fetal growth restriction or incorrect dating of the pregnancy. It is crucial to monitor closely for fetal well-being and growth.
Choice A is incorrect because being 3 cm below the umbilicus is not appropriate for gestational age. Choice B is incorrect as it does not necessarily indicate impending complications, but rather a need for further evaluation. Choice D is incorrect as a fundus higher than normal for gestational age would suggest a larger-than-expected fetus or multiple gestation.
The doctor has ordered a contraction stress test. The nurse should interpret which of the following as a negative test?
- A. The fetal heart remains stable in relation to 3 contractions.
- B. The uterine contractions last longer than 90 seconds.
- C. The mother reports a pain level that is less than 5 on a 10-point scale.
- D. The baby moves spontaneously 3 times in 20 minutes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A negative contraction stress test indicates that the fetal heart rate remains stable during contractions, suggesting no fetal distress.