Nokea
A client's amniocentesis results were reported as 46, XY. Her obstetrician informed her at the time that everything 'looks good.' Shortly after birth the baby is diagnosed with cerebral palsy. Which of the following responses will explain this result?
- A. It is likely that the client received the wrong amniocentesis results.
- B. Cerebral palsy is not a genetic disease.
- C. The genes that cause cerebral palsy have not yet been discovered.
- D. The genetics lab failed to test for cerebral palsy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cerebral palsy is not typically caused by genetic factors.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is discussing lifestyle changes to optimize fertility. Which recommendation is accurate?
- A. Avoid moderate exercise to conserve energy for conception.
- B. Quit smoking to improve reproductive health.
- C. Eliminate all carbohydrates from the diet.
- D. Increase caffeine intake to boost energy levels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
- Smoking is known to have negative effects on reproductive health, reducing fertility in both men and women.
- Quitting smoking can improve reproductive outcomes and increase chances of conception.
- Smoking can harm egg and sperm quality, leading to infertility issues.
- Other choices are incorrect as moderate exercise, carbohydrates, and increased caffeine intake do not directly impact fertility.
A nurse is providing care to a pregnant woman in labor. The woman is in the first stage of labor. When describing this stage to the client, which event would the nurse identify as the major change occurring during this stage?
- A. regular contractions
- B. cervical dilation
- C. fetal movement through the birth canal
- D. placental separation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary change during the first stage of labor is cervical dilation. Contractions occur during both the first and second stages, fetal movement through the birth canal is a major change in the second stage, and placental separation occurs in the third stage.
During preconception counseling, a patient asks about the impact of caffeine on fertility. What should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Moderate caffeine intake is generally considered safe.
- B. Caffeine improves ovulation and increases conception chances.
- C. All caffeine should be eliminated to conceive successfully.
- D. Caffeine intake only affects male fertility.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Moderate caffeine intake is generally considered safe during preconception as excessive intake may affect fertility.
2. Studies show that moderate caffeine consumption doesn't significantly impact fertility.
3. Advising complete elimination may be overly restrictive and challenging for patients.
4. Caffeine can affect both male and female fertility, not just male fertility.
5. Emphasizing moderation allows for informed decision-making and realistic lifestyle changes.
Summary of other choices:
B: Incorrect - Caffeine does not improve ovulation or increase conception chances.
C: Incorrect - Complete elimination of caffeine is unnecessary for successful conception.
D: Incorrect - Caffeine intake can affect both male and female fertility, not limited to male fertility.
A woman is informed that she is a carrier for Tay-Sachs disease, an autosomal recessive illness. What is her phenotype?
- A. She has one recessive gene and one normal gene.
- B. She has two recessive genes.
- C. She exhibits all symptoms of the disease.
- D. She exhibits no symptoms of the disease.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Carriers of autosomal recessive diseases do not exhibit symptoms.
What is the purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments?
- A. To trigger ovulation directly.
- B. To prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation.
- C. To stimulate the growth of the uterine lining.
- D. To improve egg quality in natural cycles.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments is to prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation. GnRH antagonists work by blocking the release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which can trigger premature ovulation. This allows for better control of the timing of ovulation in assisted reproductive techniques.
Choice A is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not trigger ovulation directly; they prevent it. Choice C is incorrect because stimulating the growth of the uterine lining is typically achieved through other medications like estrogen. Choice D is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not directly improve egg quality; they primarily target ovulation timing.