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A client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Inform the client that the blood pressure is high and compare the reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings for accuracy.
- B. Contact the health care provider to report the reading and obtain a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
- C. Replace the cuff with a larger one to ensure a proper fit for the client and increase arm comfort during blood pressure measurement.
- D. Compare the current reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg is to compare the current reading with the client's previously documented readings. This comparison helps determine whether the current reading is abnormal for the client. Option A, which involves informing the client that the blood pressure is high and comparing it with the previous readings, is appropriate as it educates the client and aids in accurate assessment. Option B, contacting the health care provider for medication, is premature without further assessment. Option C, replacing the cuff with a larger one, is incorrect as it may affect the accuracy of the blood pressure measurement and is not a standard practice for managing high blood pressure readings.
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The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who is having active hallucinations. The nurse implements which actions to manage the client during the episode? Select all that apply.
- A. administers medications as ordered
- B. uses gentle touch to reassure the client
- C. tells the client that others see or hear what he does
- D. distracts the client by placing him in the dayroom with others
- E. asks the client if he hears voices telling him to harm himself or others
- F. goes along with what the client says to decrease the risk of increasing the client's anxiety
Correct Answer: A,D,E
Rationale: Medications help manage hallucinations, distraction can reduce focus on hallucinations, and assessing for command hallucinations ensures safety. Touch may increase anxiety, reinforcing hallucinations is nontherapeutic, and going along with delusions can worsen confusion.
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client scheduled for an above-the-knee leg amputation. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care when addressing the psychosocial needs of the client?
- A. Explain to the client that open grieving is abnormal.
- B. Encourage the client to express feelings about body changes.
- C. Advise the client to seek psychological treatment after surgery.
- D. Discourage sharing with others who have had similar experiences.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Surgical incisions or the loss of a body part can alter a client's body image. The onset of problems coping with these changes may occur during the immediate or extended postoperative stage. Nursing interventions primarily involve providing psychological support. The nurse should encourage the client to express how he or she feels about these postoperative changes that will affect his or her life. Option 1 is an incorrect statement because open grieving is normal. Option 3 indicates disapproval, and in option 4, the nurse is giving advice.
A mother brings her previously continent 6-year-old son to the pediatric clinic because he has resumed bedwetting. The nurse assesses the home environment and discovers that there is a new baby at home. Which explanation by the nurse best describes for the mother the defense mechanism the son is using?
- A. Regression
- B. Repression
- C. Identification
- D. Rationalization
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The defense mechanism of regression is characterized by returning to an earlier form of expressing an impulse. Option 2 is characterized by blocking a wish or desire from conscious expression. Option 3 occurs when a person models behavior after someone else. Option 4 occurs when a person unconsciously falsifies an experience by giving a 'rational' explanation.
A hospitalized client has had difficulty falling asleep for two nights and is becoming irritable and restless. Which action by the nurse is best?
- A. Determine the client's usual bedtime routine and include these rituals in the plan of care as safety allows.
- B. Instruct the UAP not to wake the client under any circumstances during the night.
- C. Place a 'Do Not Disturb' sign on the door and change assessments from every 4 to every 8 hours.
- D. Encourage the client to avoid pain medication during the day, which might increase daytime napping.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: By determining the client's usual bedtime routine and incorporating these rituals into the care plan, the nurse can help the client fall asleep faster and improve the quality of care without compromising safety. This approach respects the client's individual needs and preferences. In contrast, options B, C, and D do not address the client's sleep issue effectively and may even compromise the client's safety or standard of care. Option B fails to address the underlying problem of the client's sleep disturbance, while option C reduces the frequency of assessments, which can impact the timely identification of changes in the client's condition. Option D focuses on pain medication and daytime napping, which are not directly related to the client's current sleep difficulties.
Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?
- A. Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)
- B. Depression with melancholic features
- C. Major depressive episode with psychotic features
- D. Bipolar depression
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A major depressive episode with psychotic features is considered a psychiatric emergency because it poses a significant risk to the individual's safety. Psychotic features in depression can include hallucinations, delusions, or other severe symptoms that require immediate intervention. While Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and depression with melancholic features are serious conditions, they do not inherently represent an acute emergency that necessitates immediate hospitalization. Bipolar depression, although severe, does not inherently involve psychotic symptoms that would classify it as a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention. It's crucial to recognize the urgency and severity of major depressive episodes with psychotic features to ensure appropriate and timely treatment.