Nokea
A client's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected. Why might the physician order antibiotics to be given through the line rather than through a peripheral IV line?
- A. to prevent infiltration of the peripheral line
- B. to reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein
- C. to lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic
- D. to attempt to eliminate microorganisms in the catheter and prevent having to remove it
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Microorganisms that infect CVADs are often coagulase-negative staphylococci, which can be eliminated by antibiotic administration through the catheter. If unsuccessful in eliminating the microorganism, the CVAD must be removed. CVAD use lessens the need for peripheral IV lines and thus the risk of infiltration. In this case, however, the antibiotics are given to eradicate microorganisms from the CVAD. CVAD use has the effect described in Choice 2, but in this case, the antibiotics are given through the CVAD to eliminate the infective agent. The route does not prevent an allergic reaction.
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A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:
- A. a maintenance dose.
- B. a loading dose.
- C. a medication with no first-pass effect.
- D. the medication to be given intravenously.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A loading or priming dose rapidly establishes a therapeutic plasma drug level. It can be calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration.
A client can receive the mumps, measles, rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:
- A. is pregnant.
- B. is immunocompromised.
- C. is allergic to neomycin.
- D. has a cold.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A simple cold without fever does not preclude vaccination. Choices 1 and 2 are incorrect because pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot have the MMR vaccine because the rubella component is a live virus and might cause birth defects and/or disease. Choice 3 is incorrect because the American Academy of Pediatrics states, 'Persons who have experienced anaphylactic reactions to topically or systemically administered neomycin should not receive measles vaccine.'
A patient has recently been prescribed Zidovudine (Retrovir). The patient has AIDS. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?
- A. Weakness and SOB
- B. Fever and anemia
- C. Hypertension and SOB
- D. Fever and hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Anemia and fever are associated with Zidovudine's side effects.
Medication bound to protein can have which of the following effects?
- A. enhancement of drug availability
- B. rapid distribution of the drug to receptor sites
- C. less availability to produce desired medicinal effects
- D. increased metabolism of the drug by the liver
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Protein-bound drugs are inactive and less available for therapeutic effects until unbound. This does not enhance availability, speed distribution, or increase metabolism.
Metformin (Glucophage) is administered to clients with type II diabetes mellitus. Metformin is an example of:
- A. an antihyperglycemic agent.
- B. a hypoglycemic agent.
- C. an insulin analogue.
- D. a pancreatic alpha cell stimulant.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This antihyperglycemic agent prevents hyperglycemia by reducing hepatic glucose output and decreasing glucose absorption from the gut. A hypoglycemic drug stimulates insulin production. Metformin is not a type of insulin. Metformin is not a stimulant of any pancreatic cell.