A clinic nurse is caring for a client with a suspected diagnosis of gestational hypertension. The nurse assesses the client, expecting to note which set of findings if gestational hypertension is present?
- A. Edema, ketonuria, and obesity
- B. Edema, tachycardia, and ketonuria
- C. Glycosuria, hypertension, and obesity
- D. Elevated blood pressure and proteinuria
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Gestational hypertension is the most common hypertensive disorder in pregnancy. It is characterized by the development of hypertension and proteinuria. Glycosuria and ketonuria occur in diabetes mellitus. Tachycardia and obesity are not specifically related to diagnosing gestational hypertension. Edema is not specific to gestational hypertension and can occur in many disorders.
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A hepatitis B screen is performed on a postpartum client and the results indicate the presence of antigens in the maternal blood. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for the neonate? Select all that apply.
- A. Obtaining serum liver enzymes
- B. Administering hepatitis vaccine
- C. Supporting breastfeeding every 5 hours
- D. Repeating hepatitis B screen in 1 week
- E. Administering hepatitis B immune globulin
- F. Administering antibiotics while hospitalized
Correct Answer: B,E
Rationale: A hepatitis B screen is performed to detect the presence of antigens in maternal blood. If antigens are present, the neonate should receive the hepatitis vaccine and hepatitis B immune globulin within 12 hours after birth. Obtaining serum liver enzymes, retesting the maternal blood in a week, breastfeeding every 5 hours, and administering antibiotics are inappropriate actions and would not decrease the chance of the neonate contracting the hepatitis B virus.
The nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test to a client. The nurse determines that which area is to be used for injection of the medication?
- A. Dorsal aspect of the upper arm near a mole
- B. Inner aspect of the forearm that is close to a burn scar
- C. Inner aspect of the forearm that is not heavily pigmented
- D. Dorsal aspect of the upper arm that has a small amount of hair
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intradermal injections are most commonly given in the inner surface of the forearm. Other sites include the dorsal area of the upper arm or the upper back beneath the scapulae. The nurse finds an area that is not heavily pigmented and is clear of hairy areas or lesions that could interfere with reading the results.
The nurse notes an isolated premature ventricular contraction (PVC) on the cardiac monitor of a client recovering from anesthesia. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Prepare for defibrillation.
- B. Continue to monitor the rhythm.
- C. Prepare to administer lidocaine hydrochloride.
- D. Notify the primary health care provider immediately.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: As an isolated occurrence, the PVC is not life-threatening. In this situation, the nurse should continue to monitor the client. Frequent PVCs, however, may be precursors of more life-threatening rhythms, such as ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. If this occurs, the primary health care provider needs to be notified. Defibrillation is done to treat ventricular fibrillation. Lidocaine hydrochloride is not needed to treat isolated PVCs; it may be used to treat frequent PVCs in a client who is symptomatic and is experiencing decreased cardiac output.
A client diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram this morning. During report the nurse learns that the client vomited several times during the night and continues to report being nauseated. What intervention should the nurse implement to assure the client's safety regarding the scheduled procedure?
- A. Cancels the pyelogram
- B. Monitors the client closely for any additional vomiting
- C. Medicates the client with a standing order for metoclopramide
- D. Requests a prescription for a 0.9% saline intravenous infusion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The highest priority of the nurse would be to request a prescription for an intravenous infusion. This is needed to replace fluid lost with vomiting, will be necessary for dye injection for the procedure, and will assist with the elimination of the dye after the procedure. The cancelation of the procedure is premature. Neither monitoring nor medicating the patient with an antiemetic will address the fluid loss problem.
The nurse is caring for a term newborn. Which assessment finding would predispose the newborn to the occurrence of jaundice?
- A. Presence of a cephalhematoma
- B. Infant blood type of O negative
- C. Birth weight of 8 pounds 6 ounces
- D. A negative direct Coombs' test result
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A cephalhematoma is swelling caused by bleeding into an area between the bone and its periosteum (does not cross over the suture line). Enclosed hemorrhage, such as with cephalhematoma, predisposes the newborn to jaundice by producing an increased bilirubin load as the cephalhematoma resolves (usually within 6 weeks) and is absorbed into the circulatory system. The classic Rh incompatibility situation involves an Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive fetus/newborn. The birth weight in option 3 is within the acceptable range for a term newborn and therefore does not contribute to an increased bilirubin level. A negative direct Coombs' test result indicates that there are no maternal antibodies on fetal erythrocytes.
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