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A clinic nurse is working with a patient who has a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera. How can the nurse best gauge the course of the patient's disease?
- A. Document the color of the patient's palms and face during each visit.
- B. Follow the patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate over time.
- C. Document the patient's response to erythropoietin injections.
- D. Follow the trends of the patient's hematocrit.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The course of polycythemia vera can be best ascertained by monitoring the patient's hematocrit, which should remain below 45%. Hematocrit levels are a key indicator in assessing the progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and C are not the most appropriate methods for gauging the course of polycythemia vera. Monitoring the color of the patient's palms and face, or their response to erythropoietin injections, may not provide an accurate reflection of the disease's progression. Similarly, while erythrocyte sedimentation rate can be affected in polycythemia vera, it is not the primary marker for monitoring the disease's course.
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A nurse is teaching a patient with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) about potential complications. Which complication should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Infection
- B. Hemorrhage
- C. Fatigue
- D. Splenomegaly
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infection. Patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) are at a significant risk of infection due to their compromised immune system. Emphasizing the importance of infection prevention and prompt treatment is crucial in the care of these patients. Choice B, Hemorrhage, is less common in CLL compared to other types of leukemia. Choice C, Fatigue, is a common symptom but not a complication that poses immediate risks. Choice D, Splenomegaly, is a common finding in CLL but not the most critical complication to emphasize regarding patient education.
The school nurse is teaching a nutrition class in the local high school. One student states that he has heard that certain foods can increase the incidence of cancer. The nurse responds, Research has shown that certain foods indeed appear to increase the risk of cancer. Which of the following menu selections would be the best choice for potentially reducing the risks of cancer?
- A. Smoked salmon and green beans
- B. Pork chops and fried green tomatoes
- C. Baked apricot chicken and steamed broccoli
- D. Liver, onions, and steamed peas
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct choice is 'Baked apricot chicken and steamed broccoli' because fruits and vegetables have been shown to reduce the risk of cancer. Option A, smoked salmon and green beans, although a healthy choice, does not incorporate as many cancer-fighting foods as the correct answer. Option B, pork chops and fried green tomatoes, contains fried food which is associated with increased cancer risk. Option D, liver, onions, and steamed peas, includes organ meats which are not considered beneficial for reducing cancer risk.
A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated for leukemia in the hospital. The patient was able to maintain her nutritional status for the first few weeks following her diagnosis but is now exhibiting early signs and symptoms of malnutrition. In collaboration with the dietitian, what intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Arrange for total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
- B. Facilitate placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube.
- C. Provide the patient with several small, soft-textured meals each day.
- D. Assign responsibility for the patient's nutrition to the patient's friends and family.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For patients experiencing difficulties with oral intake, the provision of small, easily chewed meals may be beneficial. Option A (TPN) and B (PEG tube placement) are more invasive interventions and should be considered if non-oral routes are necessary. Option D is not appropriate as the primary responsibility for a patient's nutrition should lie with healthcare professionals to ensure proper management and monitoring.
A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?
- A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
- B. Notify the health care provider
- C. Continue to monitor the client
- D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.
The nurse is instructing a client to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE). What information should the nurse provide about the procedure?
- A. To examine the testicles while lying down
- B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
- C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
- D. That testicular self-examinations should be done at least every 6 months
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The best time to perform a testicular self-examination is after a warm shower when the scrotal skin is relaxed. This makes it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because the examination should ideally be done while standing. Choice C is incorrect as the client should use both hands to roll each testicle between the thumb and fingers to feel for any lumps or changes in size. Choice D is incorrect because testicular self-examinations are recommended to be done monthly, not every 6 months, to monitor changes in the testicles.