A clinical instructor teaches a class for the public about diabetes mellitus. Which individual does the nurse assess as being at highest risk for developing diabetes?
- A. The 50-year-old client who does not engage in any physical exercise
- B. The 56-year-old client who drinks three glasses of wine daily
- C. The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight
- D. The 38-year-old client who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight is at the highest risk for developing diabetes. Excess weight is a significant risk factor for diabetes as it can lead to insulin resistance and metabolic abnormalities. Choices A, B, and D are also risk factors for diabetes, but being overweight has a stronger association with the development of the condition compared to lack of exercise, excessive alcohol consumption, or smoking.
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Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?
- A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
- B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
- C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
- D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.
A hospice nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and reports severe pain. After the nurse administers the prescribed opioid and benzodiazepine, the client becomes somnolent and difficult to arouse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Withhold the benzodiazepine but continue the opioid
- B. Contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID
- C. Administer the benzodiazepine but withhold the opioid
- D. Continue the medication dosages that relieve the client's pain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID. In this scenario, the client is experiencing excessive sedation after the administration of both opioid and benzodiazepine. Switching to a non-opioid analgesic like an NSAID can help manage pain effectively without causing additional sedation. Option A is incorrect because continuing the opioid may exacerbate sedation. Option C is incorrect as administering the benzodiazepine may further increase sedation. Option D is incorrect because maintaining the current medication dosages that are causing excessive sedation is not in the client's best interest.
Diabetes insipidus is the result of:
- A. A diet high in sugar and carbohydrates.
- B. A complicated pregnancy.
- C. A disorder of the pancreas.
- D. A disorder of the pituitary gland.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Diabetes insipidus is caused by a disorder of the pituitary gland affecting ADH regulation. This disorder results in the decreased production or release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine properly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not relate to the underlying cause of diabetes insipidus.
Who should document care?
- A. The LPNs should document the care that they provided and the care that was given by unlicensed assistive staff.
- B. The registered nurse must document all of the care that is provided by the nursing assistants because they are accountable for all care.
- C. All staff members should document all of the care that they have provided.
- D. All staff should document all of the care that they have provided but the registered nurse, as the only independent practitioner, signs it.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: All staff members should document the care they provided as part of their accountability and to ensure accurate and comprehensive records. In healthcare settings, it is essential for all staff to document the care they deliver for continuity of care and legal purposes. The registered nurse may sign off on the documentation for oversight purposes, but the responsibility of documenting care extends to all staff involved in patient care. Choices A and B incorrectly limit the responsibility to specific roles, while choice D inaccurately suggests that only the registered nurse signs off on the documentation, overlooking the importance of comprehensive documentation by all staff members involved.
What does the mnemonic PERLA stand for in the assessment of the eyes?
- A. Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation
- B. Patient eyes are equally recessed and responsive to light and acuity
- C. Patient eyes are equally responsive to light and acuity
- D. Pupils equally reactive to light and acuity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation.' PERLA is a mnemonic used in eye assessments to check for Pupils being equally reactive to Light and Accommodation. Choice B is incorrect as it includes irrelevant information about the eyes being recessed. Choice C is incorrect as it is missing the mention of pupils and accommodation. Choice D is incorrect as it misses the mention of accommodation.
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