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A nurse is explaining the role of intrauterine insemination (IUI). What should the nurse include?
- A. IUI involves placing washed sperm directly into the uterus.
- B. IUI is used to treat structural abnormalities in the uterus.
- C. IUI guarantees fertilization of the egg.
- D. IUI eliminates the need for ovulation tracking.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because intrauterine insemination (IUI) involves placing washed sperm directly into the uterus, increasing the chances of fertilization. This method bypasses potential obstacles in the reproductive tract, aiding sperm in reaching the egg. Choice B is incorrect because IUI is not primarily used to treat structural abnormalities in the uterus but rather to facilitate fertilization. Choice C is incorrect as IUI does not guarantee fertilization since other factors can still affect the success of conception. Choice D is incorrect because ovulation tracking is still important in IUI to ensure optimal timing for the procedure.
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Chromosome analysis is a diagnostic test that should be offered to which couple?
- A. Never conceived.
- B. Has long-standing infertility.
- C. Has had repeated pregnancy losses.
- D. Has a normal child but has not conceived again.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because chromosome analysis is recommended for couples who have experienced repeated pregnancy losses to identify any genetic abnormalities that may be causing the miscarriages. This test can help determine if there are chromosomal issues that could be addressed in future pregnancies. Choices A, B, and D do not necessarily warrant chromosome analysis as they do not directly relate to the potential genetic causes of pregnancy losses.
During fertility counseling, a patient asks about the impact of age on female fertility. What should the nurse explain?
- A. Female fertility remains constant until menopause.
- B. Fertility begins to decline significantly after age 35.
- C. Age only affects fertility if other health issues are present.
- D. Fertility is unaffected by age until the age of 50.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because fertility significantly declines after age 35 due to a decrease in the quantity and quality of eggs. As women age, the risk of chromosomal abnormalities in eggs increases, impacting fertility. Other choices are incorrect because fertility does not remain constant until menopause (A), age affects fertility regardless of other health issues (C), and fertility starts declining well before the age of 50 (D).
A patient asks about the effects of smoking on male fertility. What should the nurse include in the response?
- A. Smoking increases testosterone levels, improving fertility.
- B. Smoking affects sperm count, motility, and morphology.
- C. Smoking has no significant impact on male reproductive health.
- D. Smoking only affects fertility when combined with alcohol use.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because smoking has been proven to negatively impact male fertility by reducing sperm count, motility, and morphology. Nicotine and other harmful chemicals in cigarettes can damage sperm DNA and affect reproductive health. Choice A is incorrect as smoking actually decreases testosterone levels. Choice C is incorrect as smoking does have a significant impact on male reproductive health. Choice D is incorrect because smoking alone can still affect male fertility without the need for alcohol use.
A woman is seeking genetic counseling during her pregnancy. She has a strong family history of diabetes mellitus. She wishes to have an amniocentesis to determine whether she is carrying a baby who will 'develop diabetes.' Which of the following replies would be most appropriate for the nurse to make?
- A. Doctors don't do amniocenteses to detect diabetes.
- B. Diabetes cannot be diagnosed by looking at the genes.
- C. Although diabetes does have a genetic component
- D. diet and exercise also determine whether or not someone is diabetic.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diabetes involves genetic and environmental factors.
A 36-year-old female patient presents to the reproductive medicine clinic for a follow-up appointment. Initial laboratory results are available and indicate diminished ovarian reserve, and her partner's semen analysis is within normal parameters. Which infertility options may be appropriate for this client?
- A. Donor oocytes
- B. Ovulation induction with clomiphene citrate
- C. Follitropin injections to stimulate ovarian follicles
- D. In-vitro fertilization and embryo transfer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Donor oocytes
Rationale:
1. Diminished ovarian reserve suggests poor egg quality or quantity.
2. Using donor oocytes can bypass the issue of diminished ovarian reserve.
3. This option offers a better chance of successful conception compared to other methods due to healthier eggs from the donor.
Summary:
- B: Ovulation induction with clomiphene citrate may not address the underlying issue of diminished ovarian reserve.
- C: Follitropin injections stimulate the patient's own follicles, which may not be optimal in cases of diminished ovarian reserve.
- D: In-vitro fertilization and embryo transfer may not be successful if the patient's eggs are of poor quality or quantity.