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A critical care unit has decided to implement several measures designed to improve intradisciplinary and interdisciplinary collaboration. In addition to an expected improvement in patient outcomes, what is the most important effect that should resultf rom these measures?
- A. Identification of incompetent practitioners
- B. Improvement in manners on the unit
- C. Increased staff retention
- D. Less discussion in front of patients and families
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
- Improved collaboration enhances job satisfaction and reduces burnout, leading to increased staff retention.
- Higher staff retention promotes continuity of care, improves team dynamics, and enhances patient outcomes.
Summary:
- A: Not directly related to collaboration, more about performance evaluation.
- B: Manners may improve, but not the most important effect of collaboration.
- D: Collaboration involves open communication, so less discussion in front of patients is not a positive outcome.
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Which of the following devices is best suited to deliver 65 % oxygen to a patient who is spontaneously breathing?
- A. Face mask with non-rebreathing reservoir
- B. Low-flow nasal cannula
- C. Simple face mask
- D. Venturi mask
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Venturi mask is the best choice for delivering 65% oxygen because it allows precise oxygen concentration delivery through adjustable venturi valves. This device ensures consistent oxygen levels even during variations in patient breathing patterns. Face mask with non-rebreathing reservoir (A) delivers higher oxygen concentrations, low-flow nasal cannula (B) is not suitable for precise oxygen delivery, and simple face mask (C) may not provide the desired oxygen concentration.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has an intra-aortic balloon pump in place. Which action should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Position the patient supine at all times.
- B. Avoid the use of anticoagulant medications.
- C. Measure the patient’s urinary output every hour.
- D. Provide a massive range of motion for all extremities.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Measure the patient’s urinary output every hour. This is crucial because monitoring urinary output is essential in assessing the patient’s renal function and the effectiveness of the intra-aortic balloon pump in improving cardiac output. Hourly measurement helps in early detection of any changes that may indicate complications.
A: Positioning the patient supine at all times is not necessary and can lead to complications.
B: Avoiding the use of anticoagulant medications is not appropriate as they are often necessary to prevent clot formation around the balloon pump.
D: Providing a massive range of motion for all extremities is not recommended for a patient with an intra-aortic balloon pump as it can dislodge the device or cause harm.
Which is the most important outcome for a patient receiving palliative care?
- A. Complete resolution of the underlying disease.
- B. Improvement in symptoms and quality of life.
- C. Increased adherence to curative treatments.
- D. Achievement of long-term survival goals.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in symptoms and quality of life. In palliative care, the primary focus is on enhancing the patient's quality of life by managing symptoms and providing comfort. This is achieved through effective symptom control, psychosocial support, and improving overall well-being. Complete resolution of the underlying disease (A) is often not possible in palliative care as the focus shifts from curative treatments to comfort care. Increased adherence to curative treatments (C) may not be the main goal in palliative care, as the emphasis is on improving the patient's comfort rather than prolonging life. Achievement of long-term survival goals (D) is not typically the primary outcome in palliative care, as the focus is on providing support and care for patients with life-limiting illnesses.
The nurse is discharging a patient home following treatment for community-acquired pneumonia. As part of the discharge teaching, the nurse sh ould provide instruction?
- A. “If you get the pneumococcal vaccine, you’ll never get pneumonia again.”
- B. “It is important for you to get an annual influenza shot to reduce your risk of pneumonia.”
- C. “Stay away from cold, drafty places because that incre ases your risk of pneumonia when you get home.”
- D. “Since you have been treated for pneumonia, you now have immunity from getting it in the future.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Influenza can lead to pneumonia as a complication, so getting an annual flu shot can reduce the risk of pneumonia.
Step 2: Providing education on the importance of prevention aligns with discharge teaching goals.
Step 3: Option A is incorrect as the pneumococcal vaccine doesn't guarantee immunity from all causes of pneumonia.
Step 4: Option C is incorrect as cold or drafty places do not directly cause pneumonia.
Step 5: Option D is incorrect as having pneumonia once does not confer permanent immunity.
When rewarming a patient who arrived in the emergency department (ED) with a temperature of 87°F (30.6°C), which assessment indicates that the nurse should discontinue active rewarming?
- A. The patient begins to shiver.
- B. The BP decreases to 86/42 mm Hg.
- C. The patient develops atrial fibrillation.
- D. The core temperature is 94°F (34.4°C).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When rewarming a hypothermic patient, the goal is to gradually increase their core temperature. A core temperature of 94°F (34.4°C) is still below the normal range, but it indicates that the rewarming process is working. Shivering (A) is a normal response to rewarming. A decrease in blood pressure (B) may be expected due to peripheral vasodilation during rewarming. Developing atrial fibrillation (C) may be a concern but does not necessarily indicate that rewarming should be discontinued. Therefore, choice D is correct as it signifies progress in the rewarming process.