Nokea
A female client is seen in the clinic for a gynecological examination. The nurse begins collecting subjective data. Which topic does the nurse ask the client about first?
- A. Her sexual history
- B. Her menstrual history
- C. Her obstetrical history
- D. The presence of vaginal drainage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should begin by asking the client about her menstrual history as it is usually nonthreatening. This information can provide insights into the client's reproductive health and any irregularities. Menstrual history is a common starting point for gynecological assessments and can help in understanding the client's overall health status. Asking about sexual history may be more sensitive and personal, not always appropriate to start with. Obstetrical history pertains to pregnancies and may not be relevant if the client has not been pregnant. Inquiring about the presence of vaginal drainage is important but is usually addressed after gathering more general information about the client's health.
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An LPN is reviewing medication lists for several clients recently admitted to the hospital. Which of the following scenarios would be least concerning?
- A. A client taking allopurinol for gout states they have been taking black cohosh to help with post-menopausal symptoms.
- B. A client has an order for warfarin and states they have been taking Ginkgo biloba to improve their memory.
- C. A client taking Lipitor states they have been taking ginseng for an energy boost.
- D. A client has a prescription for an SSRI and states they have been taking St. John's wort to also help with their depression.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The least concerning scenario is when a client taking Lipitor states they have been taking ginseng for an energy boost. While ginseng may cause an increased risk of bleeding, it should not interact with Lipitor. On the other hand, St. John's wort should not be taken with an SSRI as it may cause serotonin syndrome, posing a more serious concern. Black cohosh should not be taken with allopurinol as they can both cause hepatotoxicity, especially in combination. Ginkgo biloba should not be taken with warfarin as it causes an increased risk of bleeding, making it a more concerning scenario compared to the client taking Lipitor and ginseng.
All of the following are clinical manifestations indicating male climacteric except:
- A. hot flashes
- B. loss of reproductive ability
- C. headaches
- D. heart palpitations
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Male climacteric, also known as andropause, is a stage in a man's life characterized by a decline in testosterone levels and various physical and emotional changes. While men may experience symptoms like hot flashes, headaches, and heart palpitations during male climacteric, they do not typically lose their reproductive ability. Although fertility may decrease with age due to reduced testosterone production, men do not entirely lose the ability to reproduce. Therefore, the correct answer is 'loss of reproductive ability.' Choices A, C, and D are symptoms that can be associated with male climacteric, making them incorrect answers.
The nurse receives an order to administer phenytoin through the client's J-tube. The order instructs that tube feedings are stopped at least an hour prior to administering the medication and an hour after the medication is administered. Which of the following considerations may be a reason to discuss this order with the physician?
- A. The client has a history of Type II diabetes.
- B. The client is on a continuous tube-feeding regimen.
- C. The client is on fluid restriction.
- D. The pharmacy has provided phenytoin in tablet form.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a client on a continuous tube-feeding regimen, stopping tube feedings for two hours to administer this medication may compromise the client's nutritional status. This interruption can lead to inadequate nutrient intake, affecting the client's overall nutritional well-being. The other choices are less relevant in this situation. Type II diabetes does not directly impact the administration of phenytoin through a J-tube. Fluid restriction would not prevent the temporary interruption of tube feedings for medication administration. The form of phenytoin provided by the pharmacy does not impact the need to discuss the order with the physician regarding the client's continuous tube-feeding regimen.
When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, which information should a nurse recognize as a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy?
- A. family history of stroke
- B. ovaries removed before age 45
- C. frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats
- D. unexplained vaginal bleeding
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When considering hormone replacement therapy for a menopausal woman, unexplained vaginal bleeding should be recognized as a contraindication. This is because it could be indicative of a serious underlying condition that needs investigation before initiating hormone therapy. A family history of stroke, by itself, is not a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy, unless the woman herself has a history of stroke or blood-clotting events. Ovaries removed before age 45 may actually increase the likelihood of needing hormone replacement therapy due to early menopause. Frequent hot flashes and night sweats, on the other hand, are symptoms that can be relieved by hormone replacement therapy, making them a potential indication rather than a contraindication.
When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?
- A. nausea and vomiting
- B. itching
- C. urinary retention
- D. somnolence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.