Nokea
A female client presents to the emergency department in the early evening complaining of abdominal cramping, watery diarrhea, and vomiting. She tells the nurse that she was at a picnic and ate barbecue that afternoon. What question is most important for the triage nurse to ask this client?
- A. Have you recently traveled outside the United States?
- B. How high was your temperature when you returned home?
- C. Have you taken any medication to treat these symptoms?
- D. Is anyone else sick who was also at the picnic?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most important question for the triage nurse to ask the client in this scenario is whether anyone else who attended the picnic is also sick. This is crucial to identify a potential outbreak or common source of infection. Asking about recent travel may be important for infectious diseases but is not as relevant as identifying a common source among individuals who shared the same food. Inquiring about the client's temperature is important but does not provide immediate insight into the cause of symptoms. Asking about medication taken is relevant but not as critical as determining if others are affected, which could indicate a foodborne illness.
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The parents of a child who had surgical repair of a myelomeningocele are being taught how to change an occlusive dressing on the child's back. Which statement by the parents indicates that they understand this procedure?
- A. When changing the dressing, the tape should be removed slowly to prevent trauma to the skin
- B. To prevent infection, the dressing should be kept dry to avoid excess moisture
- C. The skin incision should be kept moist to promote healing and prevent dryness
- D. The incision should be protected from fecal contamination by an intact dressing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because protecting the incision from fecal contamination is essential to prevent infection and promote healing in a child with a myelomeningocele. This is crucial as fecal matter can introduce harmful bacteria to the wound. Choice A is incorrect as removing the tape slowly to prevent trauma to the skin is a general guideline but not specific to preventing infection. Choice B is incorrect because keeping the dressing dry can lead to complications as the wound needs a moist environment to heal properly. Choice C is incorrect as keeping the skin incision moist may promote infection and delay healing, making it an incorrect statement for postoperative care.
A 41-week gestation primigravida woman is admitted to labor and delivery for induction of labor. What finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before initiating the infusion of oxytocin?
- A. Fetal heart tones located in the upper right quadrant
- B. Biophysical profile results showing oligohydramnios
- C. Regular contractions occurring every 10 minutes
- D. Sterile vaginal exam revealing 3 cm dilation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid) is a significant concern before starting oxytocin and should be reported to ensure safe labor induction. This finding can indicate potential fetal compromise and requires immediate evaluation. Fetal heart tones located in a specific quadrant, regular contractions, and cervical dilation are common assessments during labor but are not as critical as oligohydramnios in this scenario.
A 20-year-old male client is diagnosed with Ewing's sarcoma following an examination for a knee injury. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide the client?
- A. Take analgesics regularly to manage pain
- B. Notify the healthcare provider if the swelling worsens
- C. Avoid weight-bearing on the affected knee until the injury heals
- D. Seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most crucial instruction for the nurse to provide the client is to seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately. Ewing's sarcoma is a type of cancer that necessitates prompt and aggressive treatment for the best possible outcome. While managing pain (Choice A) and monitoring swelling (Choice B) are important, addressing the underlying sarcoma is the priority. Instructing the client to avoid weight-bearing (Choice C) is not directly related to the treatment of Ewing's sarcoma and may not be the most critical instruction at this point.
After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is more important to include in this client's discharge plan?
- A. Describe the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels.
- B. Encourage a balanced and nutritious diet.
- C. Reinforce the need to continue outpatient treatment.
- D. Educate on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Continuing outpatient treatment is crucial for managing anorexia nervosa and preventing future complications. Reinforcing the need to continue outpatient treatment ensures ongoing support, monitoring, and therapy for the client's anorexia nervosa. Describing the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels (Choice A) is relevant but does not address the underlying eating disorder directly. Encouraging a balanced and nutritious diet (Choice B) is important; however, specific dietary recommendations should be tailored to the individual's condition by healthcare providers. Educating on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa (Choice D) is informative but does not provide a direct actionable step for the client's immediate discharge plan, unlike the importance of continuing outpatient treatment.
A client with a BMI of 60.2 kg/m² is admitted to the intensive care unit 3 weeks after gastric bypass with gastric rupture and impending multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). What should the nurse prepare to implement first?
- A. Mechanical ventilation
- B. Platelet transfusion
- C. Loop diuretic therapy
- D. Cyanocobalamin administration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this critical situation with gastric rupture and impending MODS, the priority intervention should be mechanical ventilation. This client is at risk of respiratory compromise due to the severity of the condition. Platelet transfusion (Choice B) is not the priority as there is no indication of significant bleeding. Loop diuretic therapy (Choice C) and cyanocobalamin administration (Choice D) are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not address the urgent need for respiratory support.