A female client with osteoporosis has been taking a weekly dose of oral risedronate for several weeks. The client calls the clinic nurse to report increasing 'heartburn.' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Ask the client to describe how she takes the medication.
- B. Remind the client to take the medication with plenty of water.
- C. Advise the client to go to the nearest emergency department.
- D. Suggest use of an antacid two hours after the medication.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Risedronate can cause esophageal irritation if not taken properly. Assessing the client’s administration technique (e.g., with water, staying upright) identifies potential causes of heartburn, guiding further intervention.
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Levothyroxine sodium is prescribed for a client with hypothyroidism. The nurse should instruct the client to report which symptom because it indicates that the client is taking too much levothyroxine sodium?
- A. Constipation.
- B. Decreased appetite.
- C. Restlessness.
- D. Intolerance to cold.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Restlessness indicates hyperthyroidism, suggesting excessive levothyroxine. Constipation, decreased appetite, and cold intolerance are hypothyroidism symptoms, not overdose.
A client is receiving tamsulosin, an alpha-adrenergic blocking agent, for the management of urinary retention due to benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?
- A. Reduce daily fluid intake.
- B. Stand and sit up slowly.
- C. Take the medication early in the day.
- D. Use a twice-a-week dosing schedule.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tamsulosin may cause orthostatic hypotension, so standing and sitting slowly prevents dizziness or falls. Fluid reduction, early dosing, or twice-weekly schedules are incorrect for tamsulosin.
A client with cystitis receives a prescription for phenazopyridine. Which information should the nurse explain to the client about its therapeutic effect?
- A. Provides an analgesic effect for irritated bladder mucosa.
- B. Eliminates urinary bacteria.
- C. Calms spasms in the urinary tract.
- D. Use the medication after voiding after sexual intercourse.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that relieves pain, burning, and discomfort from irritated bladder mucosa in cystitis. It does not have antibacterial properties, calm spasms, or require specific timing related to sexual intercourse.
A female client who is starting a new prescription for doxycycline hyclate tells the nurse that she takes birth control pills. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to take the two medications at least two hours apart.
- B. Advise the client that the birth control pills will be less effective while taking doxycycline hyclate.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the contraindication to tetracyclines.
- D. Encourage the client to stop taking birth control pills until she has finished taking all the doxycycline hyclate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Doxycycline can reduce birth control pill effectiveness, requiring additional contraception. Timing separation, contraindication notification, or stopping birth control are incorrect actions.
History and physical
The client is a 26-year-old female with acute appendicitis. She has a 12 year history of type 1 diabetes mellitus and no other significant medical history. The appendectomy was completed without issue, and the client will be admitted to the surgical floor to recover.
Nurses notes
0730
Admitted the client. She is awake and alert. She rates her pain 2 on a 0 to 10 pain scale. Her pulses are equal bilaterally. Heart rate is 76 beats/minute, normal sinus rhythm. Her oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. She has a gauze dressing over her surgical site, which is clean and dry. Her temperature is 98.5° F (37.0° C) orally. She urinated 50 mL upon arrival in the unit and is reporting she
Lab results
Blood glucose 279mg/dl
Orders
• Admit to the surgical floor
• Dextrose 5% and 0.9% sodium chloride IV to infuse at 125 mL/hr
Advance diet as tolerated
• Insulin glargine 12 units SUBQ every 24 hours
. Ceftriaxone 2 gram IV piggy back (IVPB) every
24 hours for 3 days, first dose given in surgery
According to the information gathered in the nurse's assessment, the nurse should prepare to give the client [Dropdown 1] and [Dropdown 2].
- A. Insulin glargine
- B. A snack
- C. Glucagon
- D. Ceftriaxone
- E. Juice
- F. A glass of Water
Correct Answer: A,B
Rationale: A blood glucose of 279 mg/dL requires insulin glargine for correction, and a snack prevents hypoglycemia post-insulin.
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