A full-term client is admitted for an induction of labor. The health care provider has assigned a Bishop score of 10. Which drug would the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
- A. Oxytocin (Pitocin) 10 units in 500 mL D5W.
- B. Prostaglandin gel (Prepidil) 0.5 mg.
- C. Misoprostol (Cytotec) 50 mcg P.O.
- D. Dinoprostone (Cervidil) 10 mg.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A Bishop score of 10 indicates a favorable cervix for induction, so oxytocin (Pitocin) is appropriate to initiate contractions. Prostaglandins (Prepidil, Cervidil, Cytotec) are used for cervical ripening when the cervix is unfavorable.
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The nurse is working on a busy labor and delivery unit with other nurses and a licensed practical nurse. Which of the following labor clients would the nurse assign to the licensed practical nurse?
- A. A G 4, P 3 client with a history of gestational diabetes.
- B. A G 3, P 1, Ab 1 client at 35 weeks' gestation.
- C. A G 1, P 0 client with leaking green amniotic fluid.
- D. A G 2, P 1 client with a history of hyperemesis gravidarum.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A G 2, P 1 client with a history of hyperemesis gravidarum is low-risk, suitable for an LPN's scope (e.g., vital signs, basic care). Clients with gestational diabetes, preterm labor (35 weeks), or meconium-stained fluid (G 1, P 0) require RN assessment due to higher risk.
One-half hour after vaginal delivery of a term neonate, the nurse palpates the fundus of a primigravid client, noting several large clots and a small trickle of bright red vaginal bleeding. The client's blood pressure is 136/92 mm Hg. Which of the following would the nurse do first?
- A. Continue to monitor the client's fundus every 15 minutes.
- B. Ask the physician for an order for methylergonovine (Methergine).
- C. Immediately notify the physician of the client's symptoms.
- D. Change the client's perineal pads every 15 minutes.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Large clots and bright red bleeding post-delivery suggest possible uterine atony or retained placental fragments, requiring immediate physician notification for intervention. Monitoring, requesting medication, or changing pads are secondary actions.
A nurse is discussing sterilization with a male client. Which of the following statements by the nurse is accurate?
- A. A vasectomy is effective immediately.
- B. A vasectomy requires a follow-up sperm count to confirm sterility.
- C. A vasectomy prevents testosterone production.
- D. A vasectomy is reversible in all cases.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A vasectomy requires a follow-up sperm count to confirm sterility, as sperm may remain in the vas deferens initially. It is not effective immediately, does not affect testosterone production, and reversal is not always successful.
A primigravid client in active labor has had no anesthesia. The client's cervix is 7 cm dilated, and she is starting to feel considerable discomfort during the first 10 cm to the client's sacral client is a left side-lying position. The nurse should encourage which of the following?
- A. Rapid, shallow chest breathing.
- B. Deep chest breathing.
- C. Rapid pant-blow breathing.
- D. Slow abdominal breathing.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Slow abdominal breathing promotes relaxation and oxygenation, helping manage discomfort in active labor without anesthesia. Rapid or shallow breathing may lead to hyperventilation, and deep chest breathing is less effective for pain control.
After circumcision with a Plastibell, the nurse should instruct the neonate's mother to cleanse the circumcision site with which of the following?
- A. Warm water.
- B. Povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution.
- C. Diluted hydrogen peroxide.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Warm water is recommended for cleansing the circumcision site to keep it clean and promote healing without causing irritation.
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