Nokea
A gravida 2, para 1 is in active labor at 39 weeks gestation. Her cervical exam is 6 cm dilated, 60% effaced, and 0 station. An amniotomy is performed by the physician. The fluid is noted to be bloody and the fetal heart tones have decelerated to the 50s. What is the nurse’s next best action?
- A. Notify the operating team of emergent cesarean delivery
- B. Assist the patient to left lateral position
- C. Apply O2 at 10-12 L/min per nonrebreather
- D. Administer an IV fluid bolus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Notify the operating team of emergent cesarean delivery. In this scenario, the presence of bloody amniotic fluid and fetal heart rate decelerations to the 50s indicate potential fetal distress. Given the critical nature of this situation, an emergent cesarean delivery should be considered to expedite delivery and prevent further compromise to the fetus. This decision is based on the principle of prioritizing fetal well-being in situations of acute distress. Options B, C, and D do not address the immediate need for prompt intervention to ensure the safety of the fetus in distress.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which assessment finding would cause a concern for a patient who had delivered vaginally?
- A. Estimated blood loss (EBL) of 500 mL during the birth process
- B. White blood cell count of 28,000 mm3 postbirth
- C. Patient complains of fingers tingling
- D. Patient complains of thirst
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a white blood cell count of 28,000 mm3 postbirth indicates a possible infection, such as endometritis, which is a common postpartum complication. Elevated WBC count is a sign of an inflammatory process or infection, requiring further investigation and treatment.
A: EBL of 500 mL is within the normal range for a vaginal delivery and may not necessarily indicate a concern.
C: Patient complaints of fingers tingling may suggest temporary nerve compression or positional discomfort, not a significant concern post vaginal delivery.
D: Patient complaining of thirst is a common symptom and not necessarily indicative of a complication post vaginal delivery.
A 40-year-old G2, P1 woman is admitted to the labor and delivery unit with contractions 6 minutes apart. She is 36 weeks pregnant, has a history of placenta previa, and is currently experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. What should the nurse be prepared to do?
- A. Perform a vaginal examination to determine cervical dilation
- B. Assist the health care provider to perform artificial rupture of the membranes
- C. Initiate external fetal monitoring
- D. Encourage patient to ambulate to intensify labor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Initiate external fetal monitoring. In this scenario, the patient is at 36 weeks of gestation with a history of placenta previa and moderate vaginal bleeding, indicating a high-risk situation. External fetal monitoring allows for continuous assessment of the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions, which is crucial for identifying signs of fetal distress or complications related to placenta previa. This monitoring can help guide timely interventions and decision-making to ensure the safety of the mother and baby. Performing a vaginal examination (A) may increase the risk of bleeding in cases of placenta previa. Artificial rupture of membranes (B) can also lead to increased bleeding and should be avoided in this situation. Encouraging ambulation (D) is not recommended due to the risk of exacerbating bleeding and potential complications.
The nurse who elects to practice in the area of obstetrics often hears discussion regarding the four Ps. What are the four Ps that interact during childbirth? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Powers
- B. Passage
- C. Position
- D. Passenger
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Powers. In obstetrics, the four Ps that interact during childbirth are Powers (contractions), Passage (birth canal), Passenger (fetus), and Psyche (mother's psychological state). Powers refer to the force generated by contractions to push the baby through the birth canal. Passage is the route the baby takes during birth. Passenger is the baby itself. Position is not one of the four Ps in childbirth. It is crucial for nurses in obstetrics to understand how these four Ps work together to facilitate a safe and successful delivery.
When does the second stage of labor begin?
- A. at birth
- B. when the early phase ends
- C. when the cervix is completely dilated and effaced
- D. when pushing begins
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the second stage of labor begins when the mother starts pushing to deliver the baby. This stage involves the actual delivery of the baby and ends with the birth. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Labor begins before the second stage.
B: The early phase is part of the first stage of labor.
C: Full dilation and effacement mark the transition between the first and second stages but pushing is when the second stage actually begins.
The patient with which vaginal exam is most at risk for an umbilical cord prolapse?
- A. 1-2 cm dilated, 70% effaced, -1 station
- B. 5 cm dilated, 60% effaced, -3 station
- C. 7-8 cm dilated, 80% effaced, -2 station
- D. 9 cm dilated, 100% effaced, 0 station
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a patient who is 5 cm dilated, 60% effaced, and at -3 station is most at risk for umbilical cord prolapse. At this stage, the presenting part of the baby is relatively high in the pelvis, increasing the likelihood of the cord slipping past and becoming compressed against the cervix during contractions. This can lead to decreased blood flow and oxygen supply to the baby, posing a serious risk. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to result in cord prolapse due to the lower station of the baby in the pelvis, reducing the chance of cord compression.