A health care provider has prescribed isoniazid (Laniazid) for a client. Which instruction should the LPN give the client about this medication?
- A. Prolonged use does not typically cause dark concentrated urine.
- B. It is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
- C. Avoid taking the medication with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.
- D. Drinking alcohol daily can cause drug-induced hepatitis.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When taking isoniazid, alcohol consumption should be avoided as it can increase the risk of liver damage, potentially leading to drug-induced hepatitis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark concentrated urine; it is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption; and it is not recommended to take isoniazid with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.
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An older adult client at risk for osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about starting a regular physical activity program. Which type of activity should the nurse recommend?
- A. Walking briskly
- B. Riding a bicycle
- C. Performing isometric exercises
- D. Engaging in high-impact aerobics
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is walking briskly. Weight-bearing exercises, such as brisk walking, are recommended for individuals at risk for osteoporosis because they help maintain bone mass and prevent bone loss. Riding a bicycle and performing isometric exercises are not weight-bearing activities, and therefore, may not provide the same bone-strengthening benefits as walking. High-impact aerobics can increase the risk of fractures in individuals with osteoporosis due to the high level of impact involved.
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement should the LPN/LVN include when teaching the client about this medication?
- A. Do not take the medication with milk to avoid reduced absorption.
- B. Brush and floss your teeth regularly to prevent gum disease.
- C. Avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of the medication.
- D. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising to the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of phenytoin. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin, reducing its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with milk, as it may decrease its absorption. Choice B is unrelated to the medication and focuses on dental hygiene. Choice D is important but not directly related to phenytoin; it is more relevant to monitoring for adverse effects of the medication.
The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the nurse take to maintain patency of the tube?
- A. Flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration.
- B. Administer the medication with food to prevent nausea.
- C. Verify tube placement by aspirating stomach contents.
- D. Dilute the medication with normal saline before administration.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To maintain the patency of a nasogastric (NG) tube, it is essential to flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration. This action helps ensure that the tube remains open and free from blockages. Flushing the tube prevents any medication residue from causing blockages, maintaining its patency. Choice B is incorrect because administering medication with food does not relate to maintaining tube patency. Choice C is incorrect as verifying tube placement by aspirating stomach contents is related to confirming correct tube placement, not maintaining patency. Choice D is also incorrect because diluting the medication with normal saline is not primarily aimed at maintaining the tube's patency.
To ensure client safety, a nurse manager is planning to observe a newly licensed nurse perform a straight catheterization on a client. In which of the following roles is a nurse manager functioning?
- A. Case manager - responsible for overseeing a case load of clients but does not provide direct client care
- B. Client educator
- C. Client advocate
- D. Supervisor
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Supervisor. In this scenario, the nurse manager is acting as a supervisor to oversee and ensure the newly licensed nurse performs the straight catheterization correctly, following protocols, and maintaining client safety. A supervisor role involves monitoring and guiding staff in their duties to ensure quality care. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A case manager typically manages a case load of clients but does not provide direct care like in this situation. Client educator and client advocate roles do not directly relate to supervising or overseeing a procedure being performed by another nurse.
A client with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper state of unconsciousness than what is described in the scenario. Choice C is inaccurate as the client is not merely sleeping but non-responsive. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 indicates a higher level of consciousness than what is presented in the scenario.
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