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A healthcare professional is assessing a newborn immediately following a scheduled cesarean delivery. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare professional's priority?
- A. Respiratory distress
- B. Hypothermia
- C. Accidental lacerations
- D. Acrocyanosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory distress. This is the priority assessment because a newborn's ability to breathe is crucial for survival. Immediate evaluation of respiratory status is essential to ensure the baby is receiving adequate oxygenation. Hypothermia (choice B) can be addressed after addressing any respiratory issues. Accidental lacerations (choice C) are important but not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory distress. Acrocyanosis (choice D) is a common finding in newborns and does not require immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning symptoms.
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A client who underwent an amniotomy is now in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement with this client?
- A. Maintain the client in the lithotomy position.
- B. Perform vaginal examinations frequently.
- C. Remind the client to bear down with each contraction.
- D. Encourage the client to empty her bladder every 2 hours.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Encourage the client to empty her bladder every 2 hours. This is important to prevent bladder distention, which can impede fetal descent and progression of labor. A: Maintaining the client in the lithotomy position is unnecessary and may be uncomfortable. B: Performing frequent vaginal examinations increases the risk of infection and should be minimized. C: Reminding the client to bear down with each contraction is not appropriate during the active phase of the first stage of labor as it can lead to exhaustion and prolonged labor.
A client reports unrelieved episiotomy pain 8 hours following a vaginal birth. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Apply an ice pack to the affected area.
- B. Offer a warm sitz bath.
- C. Provide a squeeze bottle of antiseptic solution.
- D. Place a hot pack on the perineum.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Apply an ice pack to the affected area. Ice helps reduce inflammation and numb the pain, providing relief for the client. Step 1: Ice constricts blood vessels, reducing swelling and pain. Step 2: Ice numbs the area, providing immediate relief. Step 3: Ice is recommended for acute pain management. Summary: B (warm sitz bath) may increase blood flow and exacerbate swelling. C (antiseptic solution) is not indicated for pain relief. D (hot pack) may worsen inflammation and pain.
A client is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this test. What explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. This test screens for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus.
- B. It assesses various markers of fetal well-being.
- C. This test identifies an Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus.
- D. It is a screening test for spinal defects in the fetus.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test is specifically used to screen for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus. Alpha-fetoprotein levels in the mother's blood can indicate the presence of such abnormalities. This test is typically done around 15-20 weeks of gestation.
Choice B is incorrect because the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test is not used to assess various markers of fetal well-being. Choice C is incorrect because it does not identify Rh incompatibility, which is typically detected through other tests. Choice D is incorrect because the test is not primarily for spinal defects, but rather for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities.
A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia has the following findings. Which of the following should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?
- A. 1+ pitting sacral edema
- B. 3+ protein in the urine
- C. Blood pressure 148/98 mm Hg
- D. Deep tendon reflexes of +1
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Deep tendon reflexes of +1. In preeclampsia, deep tendon reflexes are typically hyperactive, not diminished (+1). This indicates hyporeflexia, which is inconsistent with preeclampsia. A is consistent with preeclampsia, as mild edema is common. B is also consistent, as proteinuria is a hallmark sign. C is consistent, as elevated blood pressure is a key feature. Therefore, D is the only choice that does not align with the expected findings in preeclampsia.
When monitoring uterine contractions in a client in the active phase of the first stage of labor, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds
- B. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes
- C. Contractions are strong in intensity
- D. Client reports feeling contractions in the lower back
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to decreased oxygenation of the fetus. This finding should be reported to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes (choice B) are normal in the active phase of labor. Strong contractions (choice C) are also expected during this phase. Feeling contractions in the lower back (choice D) is common and not typically a cause for concern. Reporting contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds is crucial to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.