Nokea
A healthcare professional is caring for a patient with bipolar disorder who is experiencing a manic episode. Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage group activities to increase socialization.
- B. Provide a structured environment with limited stimuli.
- C. Allow the patient to engage in physical activities freely.
- D. Give the patient detailed and complex tasks to complete.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may have heightened sensitivity to stimuli and may struggle with organization and decision-making. Providing a structured environment with limited stimuli can help reduce triggers and maintain a sense of control for the patient. It is essential to create a calm and predictable setting to support the individual in managing their symptoms effectively. Choice A is incorrect as group activities may overwhelm the patient due to increased stimuli. Choice C is not the most appropriate because unstructured physical activities may exacerbate the manic symptoms. Choice D is not recommended as detailed and complex tasks can be overwhelming and may contribute to increased stress and agitation in a manic episode.
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Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?
- A. Pupil dilation
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Decreased salivation
- D. Decreased peristalsis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.
A student finds that they come down with a sinus infection toward the end of every semester. When this occurs, which stage of stress is the student most likely experiencing?
- A. Alarm reaction stage
- B. Stage of resistance
- C. Stage of exhaustion
- D. Fight-or-flight stage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The student is most likely experiencing the stage of exhaustion. In this stage, the body's exposure to stress has been prolonged, and adaptive energy has been depleted. As a result, diseases of adaptation, such as the recurrent sinus infection in this case, are more likely to occur. The alarm reaction stage is the initial stage of the stress response, where the body perceives a threat and activates the fight-or-flight response. The stage of resistance is when the body tries to adapt and cope with the stressor. The fight-or-flight response is the immediate reaction to a perceived threat, involving physiological changes to prepare the body to either fight the stressor or flee from it.
At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?
- A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
- B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
- C. When the client communicates significant distress
- D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.
A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing flashbacks. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Encourage the client to ignore the flashbacks.
- B. Stay with the client and offer reassurance.
- C. Instruct the client to avoid discussing the traumatic event.
- D. Encourage the client to engage in group therapy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During a flashback, it is essential for the nurse to stay with the client and offer reassurance. This approach can help the client feel safe and supported during a distressing experience. Encouraging the client to ignore the flashbacks may lead to increased anxiety and distress. Instructing the client to avoid discussing the traumatic event can hinder the therapeutic process of addressing and processing the trauma. While group therapy can be beneficial, it may not be the immediate intervention needed during a flashback.
During a mental status examination, which of the following components should be included in the assessment? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Appearance and behavior
- B. Thought processes
- C. Mood and affect
- D. The greater the cultural distance from the mainstream of society, the greater the likelihood that the illness will be treated with sensitivity and compassion.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During a mental status examination, key components to be assessed include the client's appearance and behavior, thought processes, mood and affect, and cognitive function. These components help in evaluating the client's mental health status. The statement about cultural distance and illness treatment is not a part of a mental status examination and is not relevant to the assessment of mental health. Choices A, B, and C are essential components of a mental status examination and contribute to a comprehensive evaluation of an individual's mental well-being.